Unit 1: Introduction to Human Resource Management
1. What is the primary objective of HRM?
a) Increase productivity
b) Maximize profit
c) Manage human capital effectively
d) Reduce operational costs
(Correct answer: c)
2. Which of the following is not a function of HRM?
a) Recruitment
b) Marketing
c) Training and development
d) Compensation management
(Correct answer: b)
3. HRM focuses on:
a) Machinery management
b) Workforce planning
c) Product design
d) Cost reduction
(Correct answer: b)
4. Which of the following is a key aspect of HRM?
a) Legal compliance
b) Product sales
c) Financial reporting
d) Brand marketing
(Correct answer: a)
5. HRM was initially known as:
a) Personnel Management
b) Industrial Relations
c) Human Relations
d) Organizational Development
(Correct answer: a)
6. What is a strategic function of HRM?
a) Planning long-term workforce needs
b) Managing day-to-day payroll
c) Supervising line workers
d) Ordering office supplies
(Correct answer: a)
7. What does HRM primarily deal with?
a) Managing machines
b) Managing money
c) Managing people
d) Managing policies
(Correct answer: c)
8. Which of these is an operational role of HRM?
a) Formulating HR policies
b) Resolving employee grievances
c) Strategic workforce planning
d) Creating long-term goals
(Correct answer: b)
9. HRM is most concerned with:
a) Profit maximization
b) Managing human capital
c) Market share
d) Investment strategies
(Correct answer: b)
10. The term “human capital” refers to:
a) Organizational infrastructure
b) Financial resources
c) Knowledge, skills, and abilities of employees
d) Technological advancements
(Correct answer: c)
11. Which is not a characteristic of HRM?
a) It is future-oriented
b) It focuses on employees as assets
c) It ensures financial planning
d) It is people-centric
(Correct answer: c)
12. HRM policies must align with:
a) Organizational goals
b) Technological changes
c) Market trends
d) Employee preferences
(Correct answer: a)
13. The scope of HRM does not include:
a) Employee relations
b) Marketing management
c) Industrial relations
d) Compensation management
(Correct answer: b)
14. The modern approach to HRM is:
a) Task-oriented
b) Employee-centered
c) Mechanistic
d) Profit-driven
(Correct answer: b)
15. HRM as a strategic partner means:
a) Focusing on profit maximization
b) Aligning HR strategies with business goals
c) Handling daily operations
d) Monitoring employee attendance
(Correct answer: b)
16. The primary focus of HRM is on:
a) Technology
b) Processes
c) People
d) Market trends
(Correct answer: c)
17. Which of the following is a qualitative tool in HRM?
a) Employee surveys
b) Financial analysis
c) Production schedules
d) Market research
(Correct answer: a)
18. HRM is applicable to:
a) Only large organizations
b) Only small organizations
c) All types of organizations
d) Only manufacturing organizations
(Correct answer: c)
19. Which function ensures employees are motivated and committed?
a) Performance appraisal
b) Compensation management
c) Employee relations
d) Recruitment
(Correct answer: c)
20. What is the role of HR in organizational development?
a) To reduce costs
b) To facilitate employee learning and growth
c) To control budgets
d) To increase profit margins
(Correct answer: b)
21. Which of the following is considered a traditional function of HRM?
a) Employee engagement
b) Recruitment and selection
c) Strategic planning
d) Organizational restructuring
(Correct answer: b)
22. HRM contributes to organizational effectiveness by:
a) Cutting workforce size
b) Managing people effectively
c) Increasing machinery efficiency
d) Enhancing product quality
(Correct answer: b)
23. HRM integrates:
a) Technology and marketing
b) Employee needs and organizational goals
c) Finance and production
d) Research and development
(Correct answer: b)
24. The operational aspect of HRM includes:
a) Policy formulation
b) Grievance handling
c) Strategy implementation
d) Market analysis
(Correct answer: b)
25. Which of these is an emerging trend in HRM?
a) Focus on manual tasks
b) Automation of HR functions
c) Ignoring employee well-being
d) Prioritizing quantity over quality
(Correct answer: b)
26. Which of the following is an outcome of effective HRM?
a) Increased absenteeism
b) Higher employee turnover
c) Improved job satisfaction
d) Reduced employee engagement
(Correct answer: c)
27. What is the core principle of HRM?
a) Efficiency over people
b) Employee-centric approach
c) Profit maximization
d) Market-driven policies
(Correct answer: b)
28. HRM evolved as a separate field due to the need for:
a) Higher wages
b) Focused employee management
c) Better technology
d) Increased competition
(Correct answer: b)
29. Which of the following is not an HRM practice?
a) Talent acquisition
b) Branding strategy
c) Workforce analytics
d) Employee engagement programs
(Correct answer: b)
30. HRM ensures employee satisfaction by:
a) Providing regular feedback
b) Ignoring grievances
c) Avoiding training programs
d) Offering low compensation
(Correct answer: a)
Unit 2: HRM in India
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of HRM in India?
a) Centralized decision-making
b) Employee empowerment
c) Strong labor unions
d) Outsourcing HR functions
Answer: c) Strong labor unions
2. Which act governs industrial relations in India?
a) Factories Act, 1948
b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
c) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
d) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Answer: b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
3. What is the primary role of HR in public sector organizations in India?
a) Profit maximization
b) Ensuring social justice
c) Employee downsizing
d) Increasing shareholder value
Answer: b) Ensuring social justice
4. The concept of labor welfare in India is influenced by which ancient principle?
a) Laissez-faire
b) Panchayati Raj
c) Dharma
d) Swaraj
Answer: c) Dharma
5. Which ministry governs HR policies and labor laws in India?
a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
b) Ministry of Labor and Employment
c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d) Ministry of Human Resource Development
Answer: b) Ministry of Labor and Employment
6. HR practices in multinational companies in India emphasize:
a) Local labor union regulations
b) Cultural diversity and global practices
c) Complete adherence to Indian labor laws
d) Only local recruitment
Answer: b) Cultural diversity and global practices
7. What is a major HR challenge faced by Indian organizations?
a) High technological literacy
b) Retaining skilled talent
c) Lack of labor laws
d) Decline in labor force
Answer: b) Retaining skilled talent
8. Which type of economy has a direct impact on HRM in India?
a) Socialist economy
b) Capitalist economy
c) Mixed economy
d) Agrarian economy
Answer: c) Mixed economy
9. HRM in the Indian IT industry focuses on:
a) Reducing employee benefits
b) Enhancing employee engagement and retention
c) Discouraging skill development
d) Avoiding performance appraisals
Answer: b) Enhancing employee engagement and retention
10. The primary purpose of the Factories Act, 1948 is to:
a) Encourage foreign investment
b) Protect the health and safety of workers
c) Promote managerial education
d) Increase wages
Answer: b) Protect the health and safety of workers
11. What is a unique feature of HRM in India compared to Western countries?
a) Decentralized HR policies
b) Caste-based workforce issues
c) Absence of training programs
d) High union involvement in management decisions
Answer: b) Caste-based workforce issues
12. Which HR strategy is common in Indian organizations to retain employees?
a) Cost-cutting measures
b) Employee welfare programs
c) Reducing work hours
d) Avoiding appraisals
Answer: b) Employee welfare programs
13. The Shops and Establishments Act regulates:
a) Recruitment policies
b) Employment conditions in shops and commercial establishments
c) Disciplinary procedures in manufacturing units
d) HR practices in rural industries
Answer: b) Employment conditions in shops and commercial establishments
14. The HR approach in Indian family-owned businesses is often:
a) Employee-centric
b) Informal and personalized
c) Union-controlled
d) Technology-driven
Answer: b) Informal and personalized
15. Which of the following is a significant trend in Indian HRM?
a) Focus on sustainability
b) Decline in training and development
c) Reduced emphasis on employee welfare
d) Ignoring global HR practices
Answer: a) Focus on sustainability
16. Which HR practice is frequently outsourced in India?
a) Recruitment and payroll
b) Decision-making
c) Appraisals
d) Corporate strategy formulation
Answer: a) Recruitment and payroll
17. The Apprentices Act, 1961 in India was introduced to:
a) Encourage industrial training for apprentices
b) Increase minimum wages
c) Limit working hours
d) Reduce layoffs
Answer: a) Encourage industrial training for apprentices
18. Which factor influences HR policies in India the most?
a) Cultural diversity
b) Lack of regulations
c) Weak labor unions
d) Overemphasis on automation
Answer: a) Cultural diversity
19. In Indian HRM, the term “dual-career family” refers to:
a) Families with part-time jobs
b) Families with two working individuals
c) Families with seasonal work
d) Families where one person is employed abroad
Answer: b) Families with two working individuals
20. Indian labor laws are considered:
a) Highly flexible
b) Extremely rigid
c) Focused on employees’ interests
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
21. What is a critical factor in managing diversity in Indian organizations?
a) Cultural sensitivity training
b) Downsizing
c) Global outsourcing
d) Avoiding employee feedback
Answer: a) Cultural sensitivity training
22. Industrial disputes in India are primarily resolved through:
a) Strikes and lockouts
b) Arbitration and conciliation
c) Managerial decisions
d) Employee dismissals
Answer: b) Arbitration and conciliation
23. Which of the following sectors in India has witnessed a surge in HR technology adoption?
a) Manufacturing
b) IT and services
c) Agriculture
d) Mining
Answer: b) IT and services
24. HRM practices in India are heavily influenced by:
a) International laws
b) Colonial legacy
c) Regional labor regulations
d) Only technological advancements
Answer: c) Regional labor regulations
25. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 ensures:
a) Adequate compensation for workplace injuries
b) Weekly bonuses
c) Overtime pay
d) Retirement benefits
Answer: a) Adequate compensation for workplace injuries
26. Indian HRM has seen a rise in which modern HR trend?
a) Work-from-home culture
b) Avoidance of digital HR systems
c) Labor-intensive operations
d) Job-hopping restrictions
Answer: a) Work-from-home culture
27. Which HR challenge is unique to India?
a) Gender inequality at work
b) Automation
c) Globalization of operations
d) Decline in urban workforce
Answer: a) Gender inequality at work
28. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 applies to:
a) Employees earning below a specific wage threshold
b) All government employees
c) Only workers in export industries
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Employees earning below a specific wage threshold
29. In India, HRM practices for contract labor are governed by:
a) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
b) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
c) The Industrial Employment Act, 1946
d) The Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952
Answer: a) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
30. Which strategy has become vital for HRM in India to meet global competition?
a) Skilling and reskilling employees
b) Ignoring cultural differences
c) Downsizing workforce
d) Reducing employee benefits
Answer: a) Skilling and reskilling employees
Unit 3: Human Resource Planning
1. What is the primary purpose of Human Resource Planning (HRP)?
a) To increase employee turnover
b) To align workforce with organizational goals
c) To reduce training costs
d) To eliminate recruitment processes
Answer: b) To align workforce with organizational goals
2. Human Resource Planning focuses on:
a) Immediate recruitment needs
b) Long-term workforce requirements
c) Reducing organizational costs
d) Avoiding employee promotions
Answer: b) Long-term workforce requirements
3. Which of the following is the first step in HR planning?
a) Recruitment
b) Demand forecasting
c) Selection
d) Training
Answer: b) Demand forecasting
4. What is the process of predicting future human resource needs called?
a) Job analysis
b) Demand forecasting
c) Workforce engagement
d) Skill mapping
Answer: b) Demand forecasting
5. The gap between HR supply and demand can be bridged through:
a) Downsizing only
b) Training, recruitment, and outsourcing
c) Avoiding employee benefits
d) Job analysis alone
Answer: b) Training, recruitment, and outsourcing
6. Which of the following is NOT a method of forecasting HR demand?
a) Managerial judgment
b) Workload analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Market segmentation
Answer: d) Market segmentation
7. What is the objective of supply forecasting in HRP?
a) To analyze current HR inventory
b) To estimate labor costs
c) To eliminate future recruitment
d) To terminate underperformers
Answer: a) To analyze current HR inventory
8. Human Resource Inventory refers to:
a) The list of machines in an organization
b) The database of employees and their skills
c) Financial resources for recruitment
d) Cost of HR operations
Answer: b) The database of employees and their skills
9. What is the purpose of succession planning in HRP?
a) To prepare future leaders
b) To reduce employee benefits
c) To eliminate redundancy
d) To cut recruitment costs
Answer: a) To prepare future leaders
10. What is a critical challenge in HR planning?
a) Reducing work hours
b) Unpredictability of external factors
c) Over-dependence on internal resources
d) Lack of job satisfaction
Answer: b) Unpredictability of external factors
11. Which of the following is a qualitative approach to HR forecasting?
a) Managerial judgment
b) Trend analysis
c) Ratio analysis
d) Regression analysis
Answer: a) Managerial judgment
12. What is the main focus of strategic HR planning?
a) Immediate hiring needs
b) Aligning HR practices with business strategies
c) Outsourcing HR activities
d) Managing employee grievances
Answer: b) Aligning HR practices with business strategies
13. Which of the following is NOT part of the HR planning process?
a) Analyzing workforce supply
b) Estimating workforce demand
c) Conducting market surveys
d) Implementing HR strategies
Answer: c) Conducting market surveys
14. What is environmental scanning in HRP?
a) Monitoring the external and internal factors affecting HR needs
b) Reducing recruitment timelines
c) Evaluating employees’ job satisfaction
d) Conducting internal audits
Answer: a) Monitoring the external and internal factors affecting HR needs
15. Which of the following best describes workforce analytics in HRP?
a) Collecting and analyzing workforce data to inform decisions
b) Avoiding employee performance reviews
c) Developing random workforce policies
d) Measuring customer satisfaction levels
Answer: a) Collecting and analyzing workforce data to inform decisions
16. What is the role of technology in HR planning?
a) To replace HR managers
b) To improve accuracy in forecasting and decision-making
c) To reduce workforce requirements
d) To avoid employee training
Answer: b) To improve accuracy in forecasting and decision-making
17. Which of these is an external factor affecting HR planning?
a) Employee productivity
b) Organizational structure
c) Market trends and economic conditions
d) Internal HR policies
Answer: c) Market trends and economic conditions
18. HR gap analysis identifies the:
a) Difference between HR demand and supply
b) Cost of recruitment
c) Level of employee satisfaction
d) Number of underperforming employees
Answer: a) Difference between HR demand and supply
19. In HRP, the process of analyzing job roles and responsibilities is called:
a) Job evaluation
b) Job analysis
c) Training assessment
d) Demand forecasting
Answer: b) Job analysis
20. What is the purpose of workforce segmentation in HRP?
a) To group employees based on their skills and roles
b) To eliminate redundancies
c) To reduce employee benefits
d) To avoid recruitment processes
Answer: a) To group employees based on their skills and roles
21. The Delphi technique in HR planning involves:
a) Gathering expert opinions to forecast HR needs
b) Conducting random surveys
c) Analyzing past recruitment trends
d) Avoiding group discussions
Answer: a) Gathering expert opinions to forecast HR needs
22. What is a common limitation of HR planning?
a) Excess workforce availability
b) Difficulty predicting future workforce needs
c) High job satisfaction levels
d) Lack of training programs
Answer: b) Difficulty predicting future workforce needs
23. Which HR metric is used to assess employee retention in HRP?
a) Employee turnover rate
b) Workforce productivity index
c) Cost-benefit ratio
d) Performance appraisal score
Answer: a) Employee turnover rate
24. Which step follows forecasting HR demand and supply in HR planning?
a) Implementation of HR strategies
b) Recruitment of new employees
c) Training and development programs
d) Gap analysis
Answer: d) Gap analysis
25. Why is HR planning essential during organizational restructuring?
a) To retain critical talent and ensure smooth transitions
b) To avoid downsizing
c) To increase recruitment costs
d) To eliminate training needs
Answer: a) To retain critical talent and ensure smooth transitions
26. What is the focus of tactical HR planning?
a) Short-term workforce adjustments
b) Long-term workforce needs
c) Avoiding external recruitment
d) Downsizing strategies
Answer: a) Short-term workforce adjustments
27. In HR planning, labor market analysis helps to:
a) Identify available workforce and skills in the market
b) Reduce workforce training needs
c) Evaluate customer satisfaction
d) Avoid external recruitment
Answer: a) Identify available workforce and skills in the market
28. What is the main benefit of integrating HRP with organizational strategy?
a) Alignment of workforce with business goals
b) Reduced training costs
c) Avoiding external hiring
d) Minimizing employee benefits
Answer: a) Alignment of workforce with business goals
29. The primary purpose of replacement planning is to:
a) Identify successors for key roles
b) Avoid new recruitments
c) Reduce employee training
d) Conduct market research
Answer: a) Identify successors for key roles
30. Which of these is an internal factor affecting HR planning?
a) Technological advancements
b) Employee performance
c) Government regulations
d) Market competition
Answer: b) Employee performance
Unit 4: Recruitment and Selection
1. What is the primary purpose of recruitment in HR?
a) To fire underperforming employees
b) To attract and hire suitable candidates for job vacancies
c) To eliminate workforce redundancies
d) To reduce labor costs
Answer: b) To attract and hire suitable candidates for job vacancies
2. Recruitment is the process of:
a) Assessing employee performance
b) Identifying and attracting potential candidates for jobs
c) Training existing employees
d) Conducting layoffs
Answer: b) Identifying and attracting potential candidates for jobs
3. Which of the following is an internal source of recruitment?
a) Job portals
b) Employee referrals
c) Campus recruitment
d) Advertising in newspapers
Answer: b) Employee referrals
4. The primary advantage of internal recruitment is:
a) Attracting a wider talent pool
b) Reduced recruitment cost and time
c) Increased risk of bias in selection
d) Lack of employee motivation
Answer: b) Reduced recruitment cost and time
5. Which of the following is an external source of recruitment?
a) Promotions
b) Transfers
c) Job fairs
d) Employee referrals
Answer: c) Job fairs
6. What is the main objective of the selection process?
a) To attract as many applicants as possible
b) To identify the most suitable candidate for the job
c) To train employees
d) To promote diversity
Answer: b) To identify the most suitable candidate for the job
7. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the recruitment process?
a) Job analysis
b) Screening applications
c) Conducting job evaluations
d) Advertising job vacancies
Answer: c) Conducting job evaluations
8. A job description primarily focuses on:
a) The required qualifications of a candidate
b) The duties and responsibilities of the job
c) The salary structure
d) The future career growth of the employee
Answer: b) The duties and responsibilities of the job
9. Which document lists the qualifications, skills, and experience required for a job?
a) Job specification
b) Job description
c) Offer letter
d) Recruitment policy
Answer: a) Job specification
10. What is the main disadvantage of external recruitment?
a) High training costs for new hires
b) Reduced diversity in the workforce
c) Higher risk of promoting existing employees
d) Lower motivation among current employees
Answer: a) High training costs for new hires
11. The purpose of preliminary screening in recruitment is to:
a) Conduct final interviews
b) Filter out unqualified candidates
c) Provide orientation to new hires
d) Assign roles to selected candidates
Answer: b) Filter out unqualified candidates
12. Which of the following tests evaluates a candidate’s ability to perform specific tasks?
a) Personality test
b) Aptitude test
c) Skill test
d) Medical test
Answer: c) Skill test
13. The process of matching the right candidate to the right job is called:
a) Recruitment
b) Selection
c) Job alignment
d) Performance appraisal
Answer: b) Selection
14. Which recruitment method is considered cost-effective for entry-level positions?
a) Social media recruitment
b) Internal promotions
c) Employment agencies
d) Campus recruitment
Answer: d) Campus recruitment
15. Which of the following is a modern recruitment method?
a) Walk-in interviews
b) Newspaper advertisements
c) Social media hiring
d) Employee referrals
Answer: c) Social media hiring
16. Which type of interview focuses on a candidate’s past behavior in specific situations?
a) Panel interview
b) Behavioral interview
c) Stress interview
d) Exit interview
Answer: b) Behavioral interview
17. What is the purpose of conducting a reference check during the selection process?
a) To evaluate a candidate’s medical history
b) To confirm the candidate’s work experience and conduct
c) To determine salary expectations
d) To provide orientation to new hires
Answer: b) To confirm the candidate’s work experience and conduct
18. A structured interview differs from an unstructured interview because it:
a) Is less formal
b) Follows a predetermined set of questions
c) Focuses only on technical skills
d) Is conducted in a casual environment
Answer: b) Follows a predetermined set of questions
19. Which of the following is NOT a selection tool?
a) Psychometric tests
b) Job advertisements
c) Reference checks
d) Group discussions
Answer: b) Job advertisements
20. Which of the following is a disadvantage of internal recruitment?
a) Reduced cost and time
b) Limited pool of candidates
c) Motivation of existing employees
d) Better cultural fit
Answer: b) Limited pool of candidates
21. A walk-in interview is commonly used for:
a) Highly specialized roles
b) Mass recruitment for entry-level positions
c) Senior management roles
d) Remote working positions
Answer: b) Mass recruitment for entry-level positions
22. The purpose of onboarding new hires is to:
a) Evaluate their past performance
b) Integrate them into the organization
c) Conduct psychometric tests
d) Assess their fitness levels
Answer: b) Integrate them into the organization
23. Which recruitment strategy encourages employees to recommend potential candidates?
a) External hiring
b) Employee referrals
c) Online job portals
d) Social media hiring
Answer: b) Employee referrals
24. What is the primary purpose of an aptitude test?
a) To evaluate personality traits
b) To measure problem-solving and reasoning abilities
c) To assess physical fitness
d) To check medical history
Answer: b) To measure problem-solving and reasoning abilities
25. What is the main disadvantage of using social media for recruitment?
a) Limited global reach
b) Lack of diversity in candidates
c) Risk of bias and unverified profiles
d) High advertising cost
Answer: c) Risk of bias and unverified profiles
26. The primary objective of medical testing during selection is to:
a) Ensure physical and mental fitness for the job
b) Reduce recruitment costs
c) Evaluate technical skills
d) Increase employee retention
Answer: a) Ensure physical and mental fitness for the job
27. What is the final step in the recruitment and selection process?
a) Conducting interviews
b) Issuing the offer letter
c) Reference checks
d) Job analysis
Answer: b) Issuing the offer letter
28. Which of the following is an unethical recruitment practice?
a) Discriminating based on gender or race
b) Using online job portals
c) Conducting psychometric tests
d) Providing clear job descriptions
Answer: a) Discriminating based on gender or race
29. Recruitment and selection are critical HR functions because they:
a) Reduce organizational costs
b) Ensure the organization hires the right talent
c) Focus only on employee retention
d) Avoid training costs
Answer: b) Ensure the organization hires the right talent
30. A campus recruitment program is typically aimed at:
a) Hiring mid-level professionals
b) Recruiting fresh graduates
c) Attracting external experts
d) Filling senior management positions
Answer: b) Recruiting fresh graduates
Unit 5: Training and Management Development
1. What is the primary purpose of training in an organization?
a) To increase employee turnover
b) To enhance skills and improve job performance
c) To replace experienced employees
d) To eliminate promotions
Answer: b) To enhance skills and improve job performance
2. Which of the following is a key objective of management development?
a) Developing technical skills only
b) Preparing employees for higher-level responsibilities
c) Reducing training costs
d) Eliminating performance reviews
Answer: b) Preparing employees for higher-level responsibilities
3. What is the first step in the training process?
a) Evaluating training programs
b) Identifying training needs
c) Conducting training sessions
d) Measuring employee performance
Answer: b) Identifying training needs
4. Which method is commonly used for identifying training needs?
a) Job rotation
b) Performance appraisal
c) Exit interviews
d) Random surveys
Answer: b) Performance appraisal
5. On-the-job training includes:
a) Classroom lectures
b) Job rotation and mentoring
c) Online courses
d) Simulation exercises
Answer: b) Job rotation and mentoring
6. What is the purpose of off-the-job training?
a) To train employees outside their regular work environment
b) To replace on-the-job training
c) To reduce recruitment costs
d) To conduct performance evaluations
Answer: a) To train employees outside their regular work environment
7. Which of the following is an example of off-the-job training?
a) Job shadowing
b) Classroom lectures
c) On-the-job mentoring
d) Job rotation
Answer: b) Classroom lectures
8. What does the term “management development” refer to?
a) Increasing the salaries of managers
b) Enhancing the leadership skills of managers
c) Hiring new managers
d) Automating management processes
Answer: b) Enhancing the leadership skills of managers
9. What is the main goal of a training needs analysis (TNA)?
a) To evaluate employee grievances
b) To identify gaps in knowledge, skills, or performance
c) To assess market competition
d) To measure employee satisfaction
Answer: b) To identify gaps in knowledge, skills, or performance
10. Which training method uses technology to deliver learning content?
a) Coaching
b) e-Learning
c) Apprenticeship
d) Mentoring
Answer: b) e-Learning
11. Coaching as a training method focuses on:
a) Group discussions
b) Personalized guidance and support
c) Technical skill development
d) Online learning modules
Answer: b) Personalized guidance and support
12. What is the primary advantage of on-the-job training?
a) Employees learn while performing their duties
b) It requires no supervision
c) It eliminates the need for job descriptions
d) It is suitable for all roles
Answer: a) Employees learn while performing their duties
13. Which of the following is NOT a method of management development?
a) Job rotation
b) Business games
c) Employee grievances
d) Case studies
Answer: c) Employee grievances
14. What is the purpose of simulation training?
a) To provide real-life job experiences in a controlled environment
b) To replace traditional classroom training
c) To eliminate job rotations
d) To increase employee turnover
Answer: a) To provide real-life job experiences in a controlled environment
15. Which training technique uses role-playing to improve skills?
a) Mentoring
b) Simulation exercises
c) Case studies
d) Role-playing
Answer: d) Role-playing
16. The primary benefit of cross-training is:
a) Improving employees’ ability to perform multiple roles
b) Reducing the need for performance appraisals
c) Increasing job dissatisfaction
d) Decreasing teamwork
Answer: a) Improving employees’ ability to perform multiple roles
17. What is a key benefit of mentoring programs?
a) Cost-effectiveness for technical training
b) Providing guidance and career development for mentees
c) Reducing employee recruitment
d) Eliminating the need for training
Answer: b) Providing guidance and career development for mentees
18. What does the “Kirkpatrick Model” evaluate?
a) Employee retention strategies
b) The effectiveness of training programs
c) Recruitment processes
d) Organizational structure
Answer: b) The effectiveness of training programs
19. What is the role of a training facilitator?
a) To hire employees for training programs
b) To guide and support learners during training sessions
c) To evaluate job performance
d) To design recruitment policies
Answer: b) To guide and support learners during training sessions
20. Which of the following is a long-term benefit of management development?
a) Increased employee turnover
b) Stronger leadership pipeline
c) Reduced training costs
d) Limited employee promotions
Answer: b) Stronger leadership pipeline
21. What is the primary goal of leadership training programs?
a) To prepare employees for non-management roles
b) To enhance decision-making and problem-solving skills
c) To reduce the need for team collaboration
d) To improve technical skills
Answer: b) To enhance decision-making and problem-solving skills
22. Experiential learning focuses on:
a) Theoretical knowledge
b) Learning through experience and practical tasks
c) Online training modules
d) Eliminating performance reviews
Answer: b) Learning through experience and practical tasks
23. Which of the following is an advantage of e-learning?
a) Lack of flexibility
b) High costs
c) Learners can access training material at their convenience
d) Requires physical presence
Answer: c) Learners can access training material at their convenience
24. A disadvantage of off-the-job training is:
a) Employees remain engaged at work
b) It is more expensive and time-consuming
c) It reduces employee skills
d) It focuses only on technical knowledge
Answer: b) It is more expensive and time-consuming
25. What does “train-the-trainer” programs aim to achieve?
a) To develop trainers who can effectively train employees
b) To reduce the number of trainers
c) To replace e-learning
d) To minimize training costs
Answer: a) To develop trainers who can effectively train employees
26. Which of the following training methods uses real-time scenarios?
a) Case studies
b) Classroom lectures
c) Simulation training
d) Apprenticeship
Answer: c) Simulation training
27. In training evaluation, ROI stands for:
a) Recruitment of Interns
b) Return on Investment
c) Rotation of Individuals
d) Retention of Interns
Answer: b) Return on Investment
28. An example of management development activity is:
a) Recruitment drives
b) Leadership workshops
c) Payroll processing
d) Grievance handling
Answer: b) Leadership workshops
29. Which training method is best suited for technical skill development?
a) On-the-job training
b) Case studies
c) Business games
d) Lectures
Answer: a) On-the-job training
30. A key characteristic of effective training programs is:
a) Lack of performance evaluation
b) Alignment with organizational goals and objectives
c) Limited employee participation
d) Focus only on theoretical knowledge
Answer: b) Alignment with organizational goals and objectives
Unit 6: Employee Career Planning And Growth
1. What is career planning?
a) Hiring employees for short-term roles
b) Developing a roadmap for an employee’s professional growth
c) Retiring employees early
d) Evaluating organizational structure
Answer: b) Developing a roadmap for an employee’s professional growth
2. The primary purpose of career planning is to:
a) Retain employees by providing growth opportunities
b) Reduce employee training
c) Focus only on organizational goals
d) Increase employee turnover
Answer: a) Retain employees by providing growth opportunities
3. Which of the following is a benefit of career planning for employees?
a) Reduced job satisfaction
b) Clear understanding of growth opportunities
c) Focus only on technical training
d) Decreased motivation
Answer: b) Clear understanding of growth opportunities
4. What is the first step in career planning?
a) Performance appraisal
b) Self-assessment
c) Job rotation
d) Salary negotiation
Answer: b) Self-assessment
5. Career growth refers to:
a) Lateral movement within the organization
b) The upward progression in an employee’s career
c) Reducing the number of job roles
d) Employee layoffs
Answer: b) The upward progression in an employee’s career
6. Which of the following tools is used in career planning?
a) Career pathing
b) Layoff analysis
c) Workload reduction
d) Recruitment drives
Answer: a) Career pathing
7. A career path is best described as:
a) The steps an employee follows to reach higher job positions
b) The organization’s structure of roles
c) A list of company policies
d) A financial analysis tool
Answer: a) The steps an employee follows to reach higher job positions
8. Which of the following supports employee career growth?
a) Mentoring and coaching
b) Reducing training budgets
c) Avoiding job rotations
d) Eliminating career planning discussions
Answer: a) Mentoring and coaching
9. Which type of career movement involves changing to a similar role within the organization?
a) Vertical movement
b) Lateral movement
c) Downward movement
d) Role termination
Answer: b) Lateral movement
10. What is a key benefit of career planning for organizations?
a) Increased employee turnover
b) Higher employee engagement and retention
c) Reduced training needs
d) Elimination of career discussions
Answer: b) Higher employee engagement and retention
11. Career counseling focuses on:
a) Addressing employee grievances
b) Helping employees identify and achieve career goals
c) Evaluating team performance
d) Conducting salary negotiations
Answer: b) Helping employees identify and achieve career goals
12. Which of the following is NOT a component of career development?
a) Self-assessment
b) Training and development
c) Recruitment drives
d) Career counseling
Answer: c) Recruitment drives
13. A succession plan ensures that:
a) External candidates are always hired
b) Potential leaders are identified and developed within the organization
c) Employees receive financial incentives
d) Career planning is eliminated
Answer: b) Potential leaders are identified and developed within the organization
14. What is the purpose of job enrichment in career growth?
a) To reduce employee responsibilities
b) To provide employees with challenging and meaningful tasks
c) To eliminate career advancement opportunities
d) To limit employee involvement in decision-making
Answer: b) To provide employees with challenging and meaningful tasks
15. A career plateau occurs when:
a) An employee leaves the organization
b) Career growth opportunities become limited or stagnant
c) An employee gets promoted
d) Training programs are introduced
Answer: b) Career growth opportunities become limited or stagnant
16. What is the role of HR in career planning?
a) Identifying career paths and offering training opportunities
b) Reducing employee promotions
c) Conducting layoffs
d) Eliminating employee grievances
Answer: a) Identifying career paths and offering training opportunities
17. Which term refers to the process of helping employees plan their retirement?
a) Career mapping
b) Career counseling
c) Pre-retirement planning
d) Job rotation
Answer: c) Pre-retirement planning
18. Career ladders focus on:
a) Outplacement services
b) Specific sequences of job roles leading to promotions
c) Temporary job assignments
d) Performance appraisal systems
Answer: b) Specific sequences of job roles leading to promotions
19. Which training method is most effective for career growth?
a) Job shadowing and coaching
b) Layoff analysis
c) Workload reduction
d) Salary discussions
Answer: a) Job shadowing and coaching
20. What is a primary disadvantage of ignoring career planning in organizations?
a) Increased employee engagement
b) Higher employee turnover
c) Clearer organizational structure
d) Improved job satisfaction
Answer: b) Higher employee turnover
21. The concept of dual career path focuses on:
a) Combining professional and personal life goals
b) Providing employees with two simultaneous job roles
c) Offering technical and managerial growth opportunities
d) Eliminating non-core job functions
Answer: c) Offering technical and managerial growth opportunities
22. Career anchors refer to:
a) Core values and preferences that guide an individual’s career choices
b) Employee grievance policies
c) External recruitment practices
d) Financial benefits associated with career growth
Answer: a) Core values and preferences that guide an individual’s career choices
23. Which of the following helps employees explore their career goals?
a) Performance appraisals
b) Career development workshops
c) Layoff policies
d) Employee grievances
Answer: b) Career development workshops
24. What is job rotation primarily used for?
a) Reducing employee workload
b) Providing employees with diverse work experience and skill development
c) Eliminating unproductive roles
d) Minimizing employee promotions
Answer: b) Providing employees with diverse work experience and skill development
25. A career map is a visual representation of:
a) Organizational profits
b) Potential career paths within an organization
c) Employee grievances
d) Recruitment timelines
Answer: b) Potential career paths within an organization
26. What is the primary focus of career development programs?
a) Helping employees achieve personal and organizational goals
b) Reducing employee salaries
c) Conducting exit interviews
d) Improving recruitment processes
Answer: a) Helping employees achieve personal and organizational goals
27. Which term describes short-term roles to enhance employee skills?
a) Temporary assignments
b) Mentoring
c) Apprenticeship
d) Career enrichment
Answer: a) Temporary assignments
28. Career planning aligns individual career goals with:
a) Organizational objectives
b) Employee grievances
c) Recruitment metrics
d) Financial policies
Answer: a) Organizational objectives
29. Which of the following is an outcome of effective career planning?
a) Increased job dissatisfaction
b) Higher employee engagement and productivity
c) Reduced skill development opportunities
d) Limited job roles
Answer: b) Higher employee engagement and productivity
30. What is the focus of career transition programs?
a) Helping employees shift to new roles within or outside the organization
b) Conducting annual performance reviews
c) Managing job redundancies
d) Focusing only on technical skills
Answer: a) Helping employees shift to new roles within or outside the organization
Unit 7: Performance Appraisal
1. What is the main objective of performance appraisal?
a) To evaluate employee performance and provide feedback
b) To determine recruitment needs
c) To eliminate employee grievances
d) To assess market competition
Answer: a) To evaluate employee performance and provide feedback
2. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of performance appraisal?
a) Identifying training needs
b) Improving employee performance
c) Setting organizational goals
d) Determining employee compensation
Answer: c) Setting organizational goals
3. The performance appraisal process begins with:
a) Feedback delivery
b) Goal setting and performance planning
c) Training sessions
d) Compensation revision
Answer: b) Goal setting and performance planning
4. Which of the following is a traditional method of performance appraisal?
a) 360-degree feedback
b) Rating scale
c) Management by Objectives (MBO)
d) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
Answer: b) Rating scale
5. What is 360-degree feedback?
a) Feedback collected only from managers
b) Feedback from multiple sources, including peers, subordinates, and supervisors
c) A method to eliminate underperformers
d) A system to track employee attendance
Answer: b) Feedback from multiple sources, including peers, subordinates, and supervisors
6. Which method focuses on setting specific, measurable goals for employees?
a) Critical incident method
b) Management by Objectives (MBO)
c) Checklist method
d) Paired comparison method
Answer: b) Management by Objectives (MBO)
7. The primary advantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) is:
a) Its simplicity and ease of use
b) Its ability to measure specific behaviors against set benchmarks
c) Its focus on group performance
d) Its use for ranking employees
Answer: b) Its ability to measure specific behaviors against set benchmarks
8. Which of the following is an example of a modern appraisal method?
a) Confidential report
b) Paired comparison method
c) 360-degree feedback
d) Checklist method
Answer: c) 360-degree feedback
9. A critical incident method records:
a) Routine employee tasks
b) Specific significant events showcasing good or poor performance
c) Attendance details
d) Salary information
Answer: b) Specific significant events showcasing good or poor performance
10. What does the term “halo effect” refer to in performance appraisal?
a) Judging an employee’s performance based on a single positive trait
b) Using 360-degree feedback
c) Conducting performance reviews yearly
d) Avoiding biased evaluations
Answer: a) Judging an employee’s performance based on a single positive trait
11. Which performance appraisal method uses paired comparisons of employees?
a) Paired comparison method
b) Graphic rating scale
c) Checklist method
d) Essay method
Answer: a) Paired comparison method
12. What is the purpose of a self-appraisal?
a) To allow employees to evaluate their own performance
b) To eliminate the need for manager reviews
c) To focus on organizational goals
d) To decide promotions
Answer: a) To allow employees to evaluate their own performance
13. Which type of appraisal focuses on the future potential of an employee?
a) Graphic rating scale
b) Potential appraisal
c) Confidential report
d) Rating method
Answer: b) Potential appraisal
14. What is the limitation of the ranking method in performance appraisal?
a) It requires significant employee involvement
b) It cannot be applied to small teams
c) It only compares employees to each other without setting performance standards
d) It is highly objective
Answer: c) It only compares employees to each other without setting performance standards
15. Which modern method integrates employee development with appraisal?
a) Checklist method
b) Management by Objectives (MBO)
c) Rating scale method
d) Confidential reports
Answer: b) Management by Objectives (MBO)
16. What is the primary benefit of the essay method in appraisal?
a) It provides detailed qualitative feedback
b) It eliminates subjectivity
c) It focuses on numerical ratings
d) It involves all employees equally
Answer: a) It provides detailed qualitative feedback
17. Which of the following is NOT a key challenge of performance appraisal?
a) Halo effect
b) Recency bias
c) Employee training needs
d) Lack of standardized criteria
Answer: c) Employee training needs
18. What is recency bias in performance appraisal?
a) Judging an employee based on their most recent performance rather than the entire appraisal period
b) Evaluating employees based on their first project
c) Conducting reviews infrequently
d) Judging employees based on team performance
Answer: a) Judging an employee based on their most recent performance rather than the entire appraisal period
19. Forced distribution is a method used to:
a) Evaluate employee grievances
b) Classify employees into predefined performance categories
c) Eliminate subjective evaluations
d) Enhance employee participation
Answer: b) Classify employees into predefined performance categories
20. Which of the following focuses on improving future performance?
a) Feedback-oriented appraisals
b) Reward-based appraisals
c) Retrospective appraisals
d) Potential appraisals
Answer: a) Feedback-oriented appraisals
21. What is the primary disadvantage of a confidential report?
a) It focuses too much on group performance
b) Employees do not receive direct feedback
c) It is only applicable for senior roles
d) It is highly transparent
Answer: b) Employees do not receive direct feedback
22. The “horn effect” in performance appraisal occurs when:
a) An employee’s performance is judged negatively based on a single unfavorable trait
b) An employee’s recent performance is overemphasized
c) Supervisors are biased toward certain employees
d) Employees receive the same rating
Answer: a) An employee’s performance is judged negatively based on a single unfavorable trait
23. Which of the following is an ethical issue in performance appraisal?
a) Timely feedback
b) Bias and favoritism
c) Goal setting
d) Employee participation
Answer: b) Bias and favoritism
24. Which method involves structured questionnaires for appraisal?
a) Checklist method
b) Confidential report
c) Critical incident method
d) Paired comparison method
Answer: a) Checklist method
25. What is the main purpose of appraisal feedback?
a) To provide constructive insights for improvement
b) To finalize employee layoffs
c) To allocate project resources
d) To set company goals
Answer: a) To provide constructive insights for improvement
26. What is “upward appraisal”?
a) Employees evaluate their subordinates
b) Subordinates provide feedback on their supervisors
c) Peers evaluate one another
d) Supervisors evaluate employees
Answer: b) Subordinates provide feedback on their supervisors
27. In which industry is performance appraisal most challenging?
a) IT industry
b) Creative and arts-based organizations
c) Manufacturing industry
d) Retail sector
Answer: b) Creative and arts-based organizations
28. Which of the following reduces subjectivity in performance appraisal?
a) Checklist method
b) Forced distribution
c) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
d) Essay method
Answer: c) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
29. Which appraisal method encourages teamwork?
a) Peer review
b) Graphic rating scale
c) Checklist method
d) Forced ranking
Answer: a) Peer review
30. The effectiveness of performance appraisal is dependent on:
a) The frequency of appraisals only
b) Clear communication and objective evaluation criteria
c) Reducing employee involvement
d) Avoiding feedback sessions
Answer: b) Clear communication and objective evaluation criteria
Unit 8: Compensation Management
1. What does compensation management primarily deal with?
a) Employee hiring and recruitment
b) Employee rewards, benefits, and pay structure
c) Employee grievances
d) Employee training programs
Answer: b) Employee rewards, benefits, and pay structure
2. Which of the following is NOT a component of compensation?
a) Base salary
b) Training programs
c) Incentives
d) Employee benefits
Answer: b) Training programs
3. The primary objective of compensation management is to:
a) Increase organizational profits
b) Motivate and retain employees
c) Enhance job descriptions
d) Resolve workplace conflicts
Answer: b) Motivate and retain employees
4. Which of the following is an example of direct compensation?
a) Medical insurance
b) Housing allowance
c) Performance bonuses
d) Paid leaves
Answer: c) Performance bonuses
5. What is indirect compensation?
a) Wages paid in cash
b) Non-monetary benefits like insurance, leaves, and retirement plans
c) Overtime pay
d) Pay based on hourly work
Answer: b) Non-monetary benefits like insurance, leaves, and retirement plans
6. What is the term for compensation provided based on an employee’s performance?
a) Fixed pay
b) Variable pay
c) Minimum wage
d) Overtime pay
Answer: b) Variable pay
7. Which act governs the minimum wages in India?
a) Payment of Bonus Act
b) Equal Remuneration Act
c) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
d) Payment of Wages Act
Answer: c) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
8. What is “equity” in compensation management?
a) Fair and equal pay for employees with similar roles and responsibilities
b) Salary increments based on seniority
c) Bonuses given at year-end
d) Overtime compensation
Answer: a) Fair and equal pay for employees with similar roles and responsibilities
9. Which of the following best defines “internal equity”?
a) Compensation parity between different organizations
b) Fair compensation within the same organization
c) Fixed bonuses across industries
d) Government-mandated salary structures
Answer: b) Fair compensation within the same organization
10. What is external equity in compensation?
a) Pay rates that match industry standards
b) Fair pay for employees in the same department
c) Employee retirement benefits
d) Bonus payments within a team
Answer: a) Pay rates that match industry standards
11. The process of determining the value of a job in comparison to others is called:
a) Job evaluation
b) Salary benchmarking
c) Performance appraisal
d) Payroll processing
Answer: a) Job evaluation
12. Which of the following is NOT a type of employee benefit?
a) Health insurance
b) Retirement plans
c) Annual appraisals
d) Paid time off
Answer: c) Annual appraisals
13. What is “pay-for-performance”?
a) Employees are paid for additional hours
b) Employees receive compensation based on their performance
c) Fixed salary structures
d) Compensation based on years of service
Answer: b) Employees receive compensation based on their performance
14. Which factor does NOT influence compensation?
a) Organizational budget
b) Employee grievances
c) Market trends
d) Employee skills and qualifications
Answer: b) Employee grievances
15. What is a compensation strategy focused on attracting high-performing employees called?
a) Competitive compensation strategy
b) Minimum wage policy
c) Uniform pay scale
d) Time-based compensation
Answer: a) Competitive compensation strategy
16. Which of the following is an example of a fringe benefit?
a) Basic salary
b) Health insurance
c) Incentive bonus
d) Shift allowance
Answer: b) Health insurance
17. Which act in India promotes equal pay for men and women performing the same job?
a) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
b) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
c) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
d) Employees’ Provident Fund Act, 1952
Answer: b) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
18. What is the term for compensation received over and above the base salary?
a) Fringe benefits
b) Overtime pay
c) Variable pay
d) Incentives
Answer: d) Incentives
19. Which is NOT a goal of compensation management?
a) Attracting talent
b) Ensuring job satisfaction
c) Reducing employee turnover
d) Limiting employee creativity
Answer: d) Limiting employee creativity
20. What is the formula to calculate gross pay?
a) Base salary + incentives + overtime pay + benefits
b) Net pay + taxes + benefits
c) Base salary – deductions
d) Performance bonuses – taxes
Answer: a) Base salary + incentives + overtime pay + benefits
21. What does “cafeteria-style benefits” mean?
a) Uniform benefits for all employees
b) Allowing employees to choose their own mix of benefits
c) Performance-based rewards
d) Company-provided food allowances
Answer: b) Allowing employees to choose their own mix of benefits
22. Compensation management helps achieve which of the following objectives?
a) Building a rigid organizational structure
b) Reducing costs at all levels
c) Aligning employee performance with organizational goals
d) Eliminating HR policies
Answer: c) Aligning employee performance with organizational goals
23. Which factor is crucial for determining incentive pay?
a) Job title
b) Individual and organizational performance
c) Seniority in the company
d) Employee grievances
Answer: b) Individual and organizational performance
24. Time-based compensation is typically used for:
a) Senior management roles
b) Hourly workers or temporary staff
c) Project-based roles
d) Sales roles
Answer: b) Hourly workers or temporary staff
25. What is “deferred compensation”?
a) Pay withheld for poor performance
b) Compensation paid at a later date, such as retirement benefits
c) Salary deductions
d) Compensation for part-time employees
Answer: b) Compensation paid at a later date, such as retirement benefits
26. Which of the following is a statutory component of employee compensation in India?
a) Provident Fund
b) Shift allowance
c) Stock options
d) Holiday bonuses
Answer: a) Provident Fund
27. What is the purpose of salary benchmarking?
a) To eliminate employee grievances
b) To compare an organization’s pay scales with industry standards
c) To measure employee productivity
d) To calculate annual bonuses
Answer: b) To compare an organization’s pay scales with industry standards
28. What is the primary purpose of stock options in compensation?
a) To provide immediate bonuses
b) To retain employees by offering long-term benefits tied to company performance
c) To reduce the cost of salaries
d) To offer flexible benefits
Answer: b) To retain employees by offering long-term benefits tied to company performance
29. Which is NOT a non-monetary form of compensation?
a) Health insurance
b) Stock options
c) Flexible working hours
d) Performance-based incentives
Answer: d) Performance-based incentives
30. What is the “golden handshake” in compensation?
a) An incentive given to employees during promotions
b) A compensation package offered to employees during voluntary retirement or termination
c) Performance-based incentives for new employees
d) An annual bonus for meeting targets
Answer: b) A compensation package offered to employees during voluntary retirement or termination
Unit 9: Job Evaluation
1. What is the primary purpose of job evaluation?
a) Recruitment of employees
b) Assessing job value within an organization
c) Conducting performance appraisals
d) Determining employee grievances
Answer: b) Assessing job value within an organization
2. Which of the following best describes job evaluation?
a) Measuring employee productivity
b) Systematic comparison of jobs to determine their relative worth
c) Allocating training programs
d) Enhancing employee motivation
Answer: b) Systematic comparison of jobs to determine their relative worth
3. Which factor is NOT considered in job evaluation?
a) Skill requirements
b) Working conditions
c) Performance appraisal scores
d) Responsibilities
Answer: c) Performance appraisal scores
4. What is the ultimate goal of job evaluation?
a) Setting pay scales and ensuring equity
b) Managing employee behavior
c) Reducing employee turnover
d) Enhancing workplace diversity
Answer: a) Setting pay scales and ensuring equity
5. Which of the following methods is used in job evaluation?
a) Time-motion study
b) Ranking method
c) Employee counseling
d) Profit-sharing schemes
Answer: b) Ranking method
6. What is the ranking method in job evaluation?
a) Arranging jobs in order of their perceived importance
b) Grouping jobs based on similar skill levels
c) Comparing jobs to an external market
d) Developing training schedules for employees
Answer: a) Arranging jobs in order of their perceived importance
7. Which job evaluation method involves assigning numerical values to factors like skills, effort, and responsibility?
a) Point factor method
b) Grading method
c) Ranking method
d) Job classification method
Answer: a) Point factor method
8. Which of the following is NOT a quantitative job evaluation method?
a) Ranking method
b) Factor comparison method
c) Point factor method
d) Job classification method
Answer: a) Ranking method
9. What is the main advantage of the point factor method?
a) It is quick and easy to implement
b) It provides detailed and precise job comparisons
c) It is based on employee feedback
d) It requires no technical expertise
Answer: b) It provides detailed and precise job comparisons
10. The factor comparison method involves:
a) Comparing job factors to a defined set of standards
b) Directly ranking jobs within the organization
c) Developing training needs assessments
d) Comparing employee performances
Answer: a) Comparing job factors to a defined set of standards
11. Which of the following is a qualitative job evaluation method?
a) Point factor method
b) Job classification method
c) Factor comparison method
d) Market pricing
Answer: b) Job classification method
12. Job classification is also referred to as:
a) Factor comparison
b) Job grading
c) Skill matrix
d) Job ranking
Answer: b) Job grading
13. Which step is NOT included in the job evaluation process?
a) Job analysis
b) Identifying evaluation criteria
c) Selecting the evaluation method
d) Performance monitoring
Answer: d) Performance monitoring
14. In job evaluation, compensable factors are:
a) Skills, responsibilities, effort, and working conditions
b) Employee benefits and rewards
c) Factors affecting employee behavior
d) Compensation budgets
Answer: a) Skills, responsibilities, effort, and working conditions
15. Which job evaluation method compares the relative importance of each job by weighing job components?
a) Factor comparison method
b) Job grading method
c) Market pricing method
d) Ranking method
Answer: a) Factor comparison method
16. What is the primary difference between job evaluation and performance appraisal?
a) Job evaluation focuses on the job, while performance appraisal focuses on the individual
b) Job evaluation is employee-specific, while performance appraisal is job-specific
c) Job evaluation measures productivity, while performance appraisal determines pay scales
d) There is no difference
Answer: a) Job evaluation focuses on the job, while performance appraisal focuses on the individual
17. What does the term “pay equity” mean in job evaluation?
a) Equal pay for all employees regardless of performance
b) Fair pay based on job worth and responsibilities
c) Bonuses provided equally to all employees
d) Standardizing all pay scales across industries
Answer: b) Fair pay based on job worth and responsibilities
18. The Hay System is an example of which job evaluation method?
a) Factor comparison method
b) Point factor method
c) Ranking method
d) Job grading method
Answer: b) Point factor method
19. What is one disadvantage of the ranking method?
a) It is highly time-consuming
b) It lacks detailed job comparisons
c) It is expensive to implement
d) It requires highly skilled evaluators
Answer: b) It lacks detailed job comparisons
20. Job evaluation results in the creation of:
a) Pay grades and salary structures
b) Employee training programs
c) Performance improvement plans
d) Recruitment strategies
Answer: a) Pay grades and salary structures
21. Which step typically comes first in the job evaluation process?
a) Determining job pay scales
b) Conducting job analysis
c) Reviewing employee performance
d) Defining company objectives
Answer: b) Conducting job analysis
22. The main objective of using compensable factors is to:
a) Identify training gaps
b) Create uniform job evaluation criteria
c) Increase employee satisfaction
d) Benchmark against competitors
Answer: b) Create uniform job evaluation criteria
23. Job evaluation helps organizations achieve which of the following?
a) Maximum cost-cutting
b) Internal and external pay equity
c) Reduced job descriptions
d) Decreased employee turnover
Answer: b) Internal and external pay equity
24. Which of the following is NOT a compensable factor?
a) Experience
b) Age of the employee
c) Complexity of tasks
d) Level of responsibility
Answer: b) Age of the employee
25. Which method evaluates jobs by grouping them into a series of pre-determined categories?
a) Ranking method
b) Job grading method
c) Factor comparison method
d) Point factor method
Answer: b) Job grading method
26. Which of these describes market pricing in job evaluation?
a) Evaluating job worth based on external market data
b) Ranking jobs in the organization
c) Assigning numerical points to compensable factors
d) Evaluating performance instead of jobs
Answer: a) Evaluating job worth based on external market data
27. What is one disadvantage of the point factor method?
a) It lacks consistency
b) It requires significant time and resources
c) It is overly simple for complex organizations
d) It cannot be applied to senior-level roles
Answer: b) It requires significant time and resources
28. Internal equity in job evaluation ensures:
a) Employees receive pay equal to their market peers
b) Fair pay within the organization based on job worth
c) Uniform pay scales across all industries
d) Bonuses for all employees equally
Answer: b) Fair pay within the organization based on job worth
29. What is an example of a “working condition” as a compensable factor?
a) Employee age
b) Job hazards or physical environment
c) Educational qualifications
d) Performance-based incentives
Answer: b) Job hazards or physical environment
30. Job evaluation helps in:
a) Developing better employee relations
b) Determining the relative worth of jobs in an organization
c) Simplifying recruitment processes
d) Improving teamwork
Answer: b) Determining the relative worth of jobs in an organization
Unit 10: Human Resource Information System (HRIS)
1. What is the primary function of a Human Resource Information System (HRIS)?
a) Tracking sales data
b) Managing employee information and HR processes
c) Designing marketing strategies
d) Enhancing customer relationships
Answer: b) Managing employee information and HR processes
2. Which of the following is NOT a component of HRIS?
a) Payroll management
b) Inventory control
c) Recruitment tracking
d) Employee self-service
Answer: b) Inventory control
3. HRIS is primarily used for which of the following purposes?
a) Automating and streamlining HR processes
b) Conducting annual performance appraisals
c) Managing production schedules
d) Improving customer satisfaction
Answer: a) Automating and streamlining HR processes
4. What does HRIS stand for?
a) Human Resource Integration System
b) Human Resource Information System
c) Human Resource Intelligence Software
d) Human Resource Industrial Software
Answer: b) Human Resource Information System
5. Which of the following is a key feature of HRIS?
a) Employee data storage
b) Marketing campaign design
c) Financial risk analysis
d) Product development
Answer: a) Employee data storage
6. What is the main advantage of using HRIS in organizations?
a) Increased financial profit
b) Simplified HR data management and decision-making
c) Improved product design
d) Enhanced competition with other industries
Answer: b) Simplified HR data management and decision-making
7. Which HR function benefits the most from an HRIS?
a) Production planning
b) Inventory management
c) Recruitment and selection
d) Consumer relationship management
Answer: c) Recruitment and selection
8. HRIS helps in reducing:
a) Employee engagement
b) Manual errors in HR processes
c) Workforce diversity
d) Employee satisfaction
Answer: b) Manual errors in HR processes
9. Which of the following modules is commonly found in an HRIS?
a) Customer management
b) Training and development
c) Vendor management
d) Supplier database
Answer: b) Training and development
10. What type of data is typically stored in an HRIS?
a) Employee records, job history, and performance data
b) Marketing research data
c) Supplier contracts and agreements
d) Financial investment data
Answer: a) Employee records, job history, and performance data
11. HRIS is most commonly used by which department in an organization?
a) Sales
b) Human Resources
c) Operations
d) Finance
Answer: b) Human Resources
12. Which of the following is an example of HRIS software?
a) Microsoft Excel
b) SAP SuccessFactors
c) Adobe Photoshop
d) Google Analytics
Answer: b) SAP SuccessFactors
13. Employee self-service in HRIS allows employees to:
a) Manage their own payroll processing
b) Access and update personal information
c) Conduct training sessions
d) Approve performance reviews
Answer: b) Access and update personal information
14. What is the role of HRIS in payroll management?
a) Managing employee performance scores
b) Automating salary calculations and tax deductions
c) Supervising production schedules
d) Generating new business leads
Answer: b) Automating salary calculations and tax deductions
15. What is a major benefit of integrating HRIS with other systems in an organization?
a) Improved branding
b) Streamlined processes and better data flow
c) Reduced employee engagement
d) Increased employee turnover
Answer: b) Streamlined processes and better data flow
16. Which of the following is a challenge in implementing HRIS?
a) Enhanced reporting capabilities
b) High implementation costs
c) Improved employee productivity
d) Reduced recruitment time
Answer: b) High implementation costs
17. HRIS can assist in which of the following HR tasks?
a) Career planning
b) Marketing budget allocation
c) Product distribution
d) Factory layout design
Answer: a) Career planning
18. In which type of organization is HRIS most beneficial?
a) Only small businesses
b) Only multinational corporations
c) Organizations of all sizes
d) Non-profit organizations only
Answer: c) Organizations of all sizes
19. What does the term “HR analytics” in HRIS refer to?
a) Analysis of customer satisfaction
b) Analyzing HR data for better decision-making
c) Researching financial performance
d) Evaluating market competition
Answer: b) Analyzing HR data for better decision-making
20. Which of the following is NOT a feature of HRIS?
a) Managing legal compliance
b) Tracking employee attendance
c) Generating marketing reports
d) Recruitment management
Answer: c) Generating marketing reports
21. The HRIS module that tracks employee training programs is called:
a) Learning management system
b) Payroll management system
c) Performance management system
d) Recruitment tracker
Answer: a) Learning management system
22. What is the first step in implementing an HRIS?
a) Selecting vendors
b) Assessing organizational needs
c) Migrating data
d) Employee training
Answer: b) Assessing organizational needs
23. Which type of HRIS is hosted on external servers and accessed via the internet?
a) On-premise HRIS
b) Cloud-based HRIS
c) Desktop HRIS
d) Manual HR system
Answer: b) Cloud-based HRIS
24. A major disadvantage of using a manual HR system compared to HRIS is:
a) High operational costs
b) Difficulty in generating real-time reports
c) Increased employee engagement
d) Low initial cost
Answer: b) Difficulty in generating real-time reports
25. What is the primary function of a talent management module in HRIS?
a) Managing inventory
b) Identifying, developing, and retaining talent
c) Monitoring financial investments
d) Managing customer accounts
Answer: b) Identifying, developing, and retaining talent
26. Which of the following technologies is commonly integrated with HRIS?
a) Blockchain
b) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
c) 3D printing
d) Augmented Reality
Answer: b) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
27. HRIS helps improve decision-making by:
a) Providing accurate, real-time HR data
b) Increasing employee turnover
c) Simplifying manufacturing processes
d) Eliminating all HR-related costs
Answer: a) Providing accurate, real-time HR data
28. What is one drawback of a cloud-based HRIS?
a) Accessibility from anywhere
b) High dependency on internet connectivity
c) Real-time data sharing
d) Cost-effectiveness
Answer: b) High dependency on internet connectivity
29. Which of the following is a critical consideration before purchasing HRIS software?
a) Organizational size and HR needs
b) Competitor sales strategies
c) Employee demographics
d) Vendor’s location
Answer: a) Organizational size and HR needs
30. HRIS helps in achieving compliance by:
a) Ensuring adherence to labor laws and regulations
b) Setting employee salaries
c) Reducing absenteeism
d) Providing legal advice
Answer: a) Ensuring adherence to labor laws and regulations
Unit 11: Job Analysis and Design
1. What is the primary objective of job analysis?
a) To assign salaries
b) To gather detailed information about a job
c) To improve customer satisfaction
d) To design marketing strategies
Answer: b) To gather detailed information about a job
2. Which of the following is NOT a method of job analysis?
a) Observation method
b) Interview method
c) Questionnaire method
d) Sales forecasting method
Answer: d) Sales forecasting method
3. Job analysis typically results in the preparation of:
a) Job description and job specification
b) Marketing plan
c) Employee salary structure
d) Production targets
Answer: a) Job description and job specification
4. What does job specification focus on?
a) Tasks and responsibilities of the job
b) Skills, qualifications, and abilities required for the job
c) Pay and benefits associated with the job
d) Working hours and shifts
Answer: b) Skills, qualifications, and abilities required for the job
5. Which of the following is included in a job description?
a) Educational qualifications
b) Salary details
c) Duties and responsibilities
d) Personal hobbies
Answer: c) Duties and responsibilities
6. Job design refers to:
a) Structuring jobs to improve organizational efficiency and employee satisfaction
b) Designing marketing materials
c) Creating office layouts
d) Developing new products
Answer: a) Structuring jobs to improve organizational efficiency and employee satisfaction
7. Which of the following is a technique used in job design?
a) Job enlargement
b) Market segmentation
c) Customer profiling
d) Inventory management
Answer: a) Job enlargement
8. Job enrichment focuses on:
a) Adding more tasks of a similar nature
b) Increasing the depth and responsibility of the job
c) Reducing the workload
d) Improving employee relations
Answer: b) Increasing the depth and responsibility of the job
9. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of job analysis?
a) Clear role definition
b) Improved employee engagement
c) Enhanced customer satisfaction
d) Better recruitment decisions
Answer: c) Enhanced customer satisfaction
10. What is the primary focus of job analysis?
a) Identifying organizational goals
b) Analyzing employee behavior
c) Understanding tasks, responsibilities, and requirements of a job
d) Designing training programs
Answer: c) Understanding tasks, responsibilities, and requirements of a job
11. A systematic study of job components and requirements is called:
a) Job specification
b) Job analysis
c) Job rotation
d) Job evaluation
Answer: b) Job analysis
12. Which term refers to increasing the variety of tasks performed by a worker?
a) Job simplification
b) Job rotation
c) Job enlargement
d) Job specialization
Answer: c) Job enlargement
13. The process of moving employees between different jobs is called:
a) Job enrichment
b) Job rotation
c) Job enlargement
d) Job analysis
Answer: b) Job rotation
14. Which of the following is NOT a component of job analysis?
a) Job context
b) Job content
c) Job evaluation
d) Marketing strategy
Answer: d) Marketing strategy
15. Job design helps in:
a) Improving job satisfaction
b) Increasing product sales
c) Enhancing customer experience
d) Designing office spaces
Answer: a) Improving job satisfaction
16. What is the key difference between job description and job specification?
a) Job description focuses on tasks; job specification focuses on qualifications
b) Job specification outlines pay scales; job description lists benefits
c) Job description involves goals; job specification involves duties
d) Job specification is about equipment; job description is about workspace
Answer: a) Job description focuses on tasks; job specification focuses on qualifications
17. Which of the following is a challenge in job analysis?
a) Employee turnover
b) Inaccurate data collection
c) High productivity
d) Clear communication
Answer: b) Inaccurate data collection
18. Job specialization involves:
a) Narrowing down tasks to specific areas of expertise
b) Adding more variety to the job
c) Rotating employees across departments
d) Eliminating redundant positions
Answer: a) Narrowing down tasks to specific areas of expertise
19. Which of the following best defines “task identity” in job design?
a) The extent to which a worker completes an entire job from start to finish
b) The number of people involved in a task
c) The clarity of job responsibilities
d) The level of feedback received
Answer: a) The extent to which a worker completes an entire job from start to finish
20. What is the main purpose of job rotation?
a) Reducing absenteeism
b) Enhancing skill development and reducing monotony
c) Increasing salaries
d) Reducing working hours
Answer: b) Enhancing skill development and reducing monotony
21. In job design, “autonomy” refers to:
a) The level of independence employees have in their work
b) The amount of supervision required
c) The physical workspace provided
d) The number of tasks in a job
Answer: a) The level of independence employees have in their work
22. Which factor is crucial for successful job enrichment?
a) Increased workload
b) Greater employee responsibility and decision-making authority
c) Reduced training programs
d) Decreased employee engagement
Answer: b) Greater employee responsibility and decision-making authority
23. Job analysis is important for which HR process?
a) Recruitment and selection
b) Customer relationship management
c) Production planning
d) Market segmentation
Answer: a) Recruitment and selection
24. What does “skill variety” in job design refer to?
a) Using a range of skills and talents in a job
b) Focusing on one specialized skill
c) Increasing the number of employees in a role
d) Standardizing job processes
Answer: a) Using a range of skills and talents in a job
25. Which of the following is NOT a method used in job design?
a) Job simplification
b) Job rotation
c) Job enrichment
d) Price analysis
Answer: d) Price analysis
26. Why is employee feedback important in job analysis?
a) To understand the actual job content and challenges
b) To increase the salary budget
c) To measure customer satisfaction
d) To improve marketing strategies
Answer: a) To understand the actual job content and challenges
27. What does “job content” refer to in job analysis?
a) Tasks, responsibilities, and duties of a job
b) Salary and benefits
c) Number of employees in the organization
d) Performance appraisal process
Answer: a) Tasks, responsibilities, and duties of a job
28. Which of the following is a psychological benefit of a well-designed job?
a) Enhanced job satisfaction
b) Increased work hours
c) Higher absenteeism
d) Reduced job autonomy
Answer: a) Enhanced job satisfaction
29. Which technique focuses on breaking down jobs into simpler tasks?
a) Job simplification
b) Job enrichment
c) Job rotation
d) Job enlargement
Answer: a) Job simplification
30. Job analysis and design help organizations achieve:
a) Better alignment of tasks with organizational goals
b) Higher profit margins directly
c) Better product designs
d) More customers in a shorter time
Answer: a) Better alignment of tasks with organizational goals
Unit 12: Employee Misconduct and Disciplinary Procedure
1. What is employee misconduct?
a) Employees achieving high targets
b) Violation of company policies or ethical norms
c) Volunteering for extra tasks
d) Attending training sessions
Answer: b) Violation of company policies or ethical norms
2. Which of the following is an example of gross misconduct?
a) Arriving late to work occasionally
b) Harassment of colleagues
c) Taking a longer lunch break
d) Making a minor clerical error
Answer: b) Harassment of colleagues
3. What is the first step in addressing employee misconduct?
a) Immediate termination
b) Investigation of the issue
c) Issuing a legal notice
d) Ignoring the behavior
Answer: b) Investigation of the issue
4. Which of the following is NOT a type of employee misconduct?
a) Theft
b) Fraud
c) Constructive feedback
d) Substance abuse at the workplace
Answer: c) Constructive feedback
5. The purpose of disciplinary procedures is to:
a) Punish employees
b) Maintain workplace order and fairness
c) Encourage workplace competition
d) Replace employees frequently
Answer: b) Maintain workplace order and fairness
6. Minor misconduct typically involves:
a) Harassment
b) Unauthorized absenteeism
c) Physical violence
d) Theft of company property
Answer: b) Unauthorized absenteeism
7. What is the role of a warning letter in disciplinary action?
a) To immediately terminate the employee
b) To document misconduct and provide a chance for improvement
c) To announce new policies
d) To praise employee behavior
Answer: b) To document misconduct and provide a chance for improvement
8. Which term refers to unfair treatment by an employee towards a colleague or subordinate?
a) Fraud
b) Harassment
c) Teamwork
d) Motivation
Answer: b) Harassment
9. What is the primary objective of a disciplinary hearing?
a) To dismiss the employee
b) To intimidate the employee
c) To provide a fair opportunity to present their case
d) To reduce workplace productivity
Answer: c) To provide a fair opportunity to present their case
10. A progressive disciplinary action process involves:
a) Immediate dismissal without warning
b) Gradual escalation of penalties for repeated misconduct
c) Ignoring minor infractions
d) Promoting the employee
Answer: b) Gradual escalation of penalties for repeated misconduct
11. Which document is essential for addressing misconduct?
a) Job application form
b) Employee handbook
c) Marketing report
d) Financial statement
Answer: b) Employee handbook
12. What is considered a verbal warning?
a) An official dismissal notice
b) A formal document signed by the employee
c) An informal discussion about misconduct
d) A reward for good behavior
Answer: c) An informal discussion about misconduct
13. The concept of “natural justice” in disciplinary procedures emphasizes:
a) Immediate punishment
b) Fair and unbiased treatment of employees
c) Strict adherence to company rules
d) Encouraging misconduct
Answer: b) Fair and unbiased treatment of employees
14. Who is responsible for investigating employee misconduct?
a) Marketing team
b) HR department or designated authority
c) Customer service team
d) External vendors
Answer: b) HR department or designated authority
15. Which of the following is NOT part of a disciplinary procedure?
a) Investigation
b) Hearing
c) Counseling
d) Ignoring the issue
Answer: d) Ignoring the issue
16. What is the final step in a disciplinary procedure for severe misconduct?
a) Warning letter
b) Training session
c) Termination of employment
d) Counseling
Answer: c) Termination of employment
17. Constructive dismissal refers to:
a) Employees being fired constructively
b) Employees resigning due to unbearable working conditions caused by the employer
c) Employers hiring constructive employees
d) Positive workplace termination
Answer: b) Employees resigning due to unbearable working conditions caused by the employer
18. Which of these is an appropriate response to minor misconduct?
a) Verbal or written warning
b) Immediate dismissal
c) Escalation to legal authorities
d) Public announcement of the issue
Answer: a) Verbal or written warning
19. What is the main goal of counseling in cases of misconduct?
a) Punish the employee
b) Provide a platform for the employee to express concerns and seek improvement
c) Escalate the issue to higher management
d) Terminate the employee immediately
Answer: b) Provide a platform for the employee to express concerns and seek improvement
20. What is a key element of a fair disciplinary process?
a) Prejudice
b) Lack of evidence
c) Transparency and impartiality
d) Ignoring employee input
Answer: c) Transparency and impartiality
21. Failure to follow safety protocols at work is an example of:
a) Harassment
b) Negligence
c) Absenteeism
d) Ethical behavior
Answer: b) Negligence
22. How should employers address repeated misconduct?
a) Terminate immediately without any warning
b) Implement progressive disciplinary action
c) Transfer the employee to a new role
d) Ignore the behavior
Answer: b) Implement progressive disciplinary action
23. What is the purpose of a grievance procedure in misconduct cases?
a) To resolve employee complaints fairly and efficiently
b) To punish employees
c) To reduce salaries
d) To promote favoritism
Answer: a) To resolve employee complaints fairly and efficiently
24. Which act governs industrial discipline in India?
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
c) Companies Act, 2013
d) Income Tax Act, 1961
Answer: a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
25. Which of the following can be used to prevent employee misconduct?
a) Establishing clear policies and expectations
b) Ignoring complaints
c) Terminating employees frequently
d) Encouraging leniency
Answer: a) Establishing clear policies and expectations
26. What is “gross misconduct”?
a) Minor policy violations
b) Serious breaches of workplace rules or ethics
c) Failure to achieve targets
d) Frequent breaks
Answer: b) Serious breaches of workplace rules or ethics
27. Substance abuse at the workplace can lead to:
a) Increased productivity
b) Enhanced morale
c) Workplace accidents and reduced performance
d) Improved teamwork
Answer: c) Workplace accidents and reduced performance
28. An employee’s refusal to follow a manager’s legitimate instructions is called:
a) Negligence
b) Insubordination
c) Harassment
d) Teamwork
Answer: b) Insubordination
29. What is the primary purpose of documenting misconduct?
a) To terminate the employee immediately
b) To create a record for legal and disciplinary purposes
c) To reward employees
d) To increase workload
Answer: b) To create a record for legal and disciplinary purposes
30. Which of the following is a proactive approach to reducing employee misconduct?
a) Offering proper training and clear communication of policies
b) Increasing workloads
c) Delaying disciplinary actions
d) Encouraging competition among employees
Answer: a) Offering proper training and clear communication of policies
Unit 13: Grievance and Grievance Procedure
1. What is a grievance in the workplace?
a) A formal complaint raised by an employee
b) A suggestion to improve the workplace
c) A legal notice
d) An informal discussion with a manager
Answer: a) A formal complaint raised by an employee
2. Grievances can arise due to:
a) Discrimination
b) Unfair treatment
c) Poor working conditions
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
3. The primary objective of a grievance procedure is to:
a) Avoid employee complaints
b) Resolve employee concerns fairly and efficiently
c) Punish the employee
d) Delay addressing the issue
Answer: b) Resolve employee concerns fairly and efficiently
4. What is the first step in handling a grievance?
a) Terminate the employee
b) Investigate the issue
c) Ignore the complaint
d) Escalate to the CEO
Answer: b) Investigate the issue
5. Which of the following is NOT a cause of employee grievance?
a) Favoritism
b) Discrimination
c) Timely promotions
d) Poor communication
Answer: c) Timely promotions
6. Grievance redressal helps improve:
a) Employee satisfaction and productivity
b) Employee absenteeism
c) Job insecurity
d) Office conflicts
Answer: a) Employee satisfaction and productivity
7. Who is primarily responsible for handling grievances in an organization?
a) Finance department
b) HR department or grievance committee
c) Marketing department
d) Sales team
Answer: b) HR department or grievance committee
8. A grievance procedure typically involves:
a) Investigation, resolution, and follow-up
b) Termination without explanation
c) Punishment without evidence
d) Public announcements of the grievance
Answer: a) Investigation, resolution, and follow-up
9. What should a manager avoid during grievance handling?
a) Listening to the employee
b) Being impartial
c) Jumping to conclusions without proper evidence
d) Respecting confidentiality
Answer: c) Jumping to conclusions without proper evidence
10. Which step is critical for ensuring the grievance procedure is fair?
a) Bias against the employee
b) Providing opportunities for both parties to present their case
c) Ignoring feedback
d) Immediate punishment
Answer: b) Providing opportunities for both parties to present their case
11. An employee grievance can be classified as:
a) Individual or collective
b) Personal or professional
c) Positive or negative
d) Temporary or permanent
Answer: a) Individual or collective
12. What is the role of documentation in grievance handling?
a) To praise employees
b) To provide a record for future reference and legal purposes
c) To reduce workload
d) To escalate issues unnecessarily
Answer: b) To provide a record for future reference and legal purposes
13. A grievance caused by favoritism is classified under:
a) Workplace politics
b) Interpersonal conflict
c) Managerial policies
d) Leadership issues
Answer: c) Managerial policies
14. What is the final step in the grievance procedure?
a) Escalation to senior management
b) Resolution and communication of the decision
c) Termination of the employee
d) Conducting a disciplinary hearing
Answer: b) Resolution and communication of the decision
15. A grievance that affects multiple employees is called:
a) Individual grievance
b) Collective grievance
c) Managerial grievance
d) Organizational grievance
Answer: b) Collective grievance
16. Which of the following ensures grievance redressal is effective?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Establishing a clear grievance policy
c) Delaying responses
d) Avoiding follow-up actions
Answer: b) Establishing a clear grievance policy
17. A grievance related to unsafe working conditions falls under:
a) Economic grievances
b) Working environment grievances
c) Ethical grievances
d) Managerial grievances
Answer: b) Working environment grievances
18. What is the key to successful grievance handling?
a) Ignoring the complaint
b) Open communication and trust
c) Terminating the employee
d) Delaying investigation
Answer: b) Open communication and trust
19. When an employee’s grievance is ignored, it can lead to:
a) Higher morale
b) Increased productivity
c) Workplace conflicts and dissatisfaction
d) Improved teamwork
Answer: c) Workplace conflicts and dissatisfaction
20. Which act in India protects employees against unfair labor practices?
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b) Companies Act, 2013
c) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
d) Income Tax Act, 1961
Answer: a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
21. Which of the following is an essential quality of a grievance officer?
a) Bias
b) Confidentiality
c) Impulsiveness
d) Indifference
Answer: b) Confidentiality
22. A grievance should ideally be reported within:
a) 1 month of occurrence
b) 1 year of occurrence
c) 24 hours of occurrence
d) An unspecified timeframe
Answer: a) 1 month of occurrence
23. The effectiveness of grievance handling can be measured by:
a) Increased employee complaints
b) Improved employee satisfaction and reduced conflicts
c) High employee turnover
d) Frequent legal disputes
Answer: b) Improved employee satisfaction and reduced conflicts
24. When should a grievance be escalated to higher management?
a) When it is unresolved at the immediate supervisor level
b) When the employee demands it
c) When the HR team decides without investigation
d) Immediately after receiving the complaint
Answer: a) When it is unresolved at the immediate supervisor level
25. In grievance procedures, natural justice refers to:
a) Fair and unbiased treatment
b) Immediate termination
c) Ignoring the employee’s concerns
d) Focusing only on the employer’s viewpoint
Answer: a) Fair and unbiased treatment
26. A well-designed grievance procedure helps:
a) Improve employee-employer relations
b) Increase workplace conflicts
c) Reduce transparency
d) Discourage employee feedback
Answer: a) Improve employee-employer relations
27. Which of the following is NOT a grievance reporting method?
a) Suggestion boxes
b) Employee forums
c) Ignoring complaints
d) Direct reporting to supervisors
Answer: c) Ignoring complaints
28. If a grievance is resolved informally, it means:
a) The issue is ignored
b) The grievance is resolved through dialogue without formal procedures
c) Legal action is taken
d) The employee is terminated
Answer: b) The grievance is resolved through dialogue without formal procedures
29. When grievances are resolved on time, it:
a) Increases dissatisfaction
b) Reduces employee retention
c) Enhances trust and morale
d) Discourages open communication
Answer: c) Enhances trust and morale
30. The grievance procedure must be:
a) Complicated and rigid
b) Simple, transparent, and accessible
c) Unstructured and vague
d) Strictly punitive
Answer: b) Simple, transparent, and accessible
Unit 14: Employee Welfare and Working Conditions
1. What does employee welfare primarily focus on?
a) Increasing company profits
b) Enhancing employee well-being and satisfaction
c) Reducing the number of employees
d) Promoting stricter work rules
Answer: b) Enhancing employee well-being and satisfaction
2. Which of the following is an example of employee welfare?
a) Bonuses and incentives
b) Safe drinking water facilities
c) Paid leave policies
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
3. The Factories Act, 1948 in India mandates:
a) Welfare facilities like canteens, first-aid, and restrooms
b) Salary structures
c) Recruitment policies
d) Pension schemes
Answer: a) Welfare facilities like canteens, first-aid, and restrooms
4. Employee welfare schemes can be categorized into:
a) Statutory and non-statutory welfare schemes
b) Permanent and temporary schemes
c) National and international schemes
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Statutory and non-statutory welfare schemes
5. Non-statutory welfare measures include:
a) Providing transport facilities
b) Safety equipment
c) Health insurance mandated by law
d) Compliance with working hours
Answer: a) Providing transport facilities
6. Which of the following is an example of statutory welfare provision in India?
a) Maternity benefits
b) Subsidized meals
c) Recreational facilities
d) Annual company picnics
Answer: a) Maternity benefits
7. What is the purpose of safety measures under employee welfare?
a) To improve workplace aesthetics
b) To minimize workplace accidents and hazards
c) To reduce employee workloads
d) To increase the working hours
Answer: b) To minimize workplace accidents and hazards
8. Good working conditions include:
a) Adequate ventilation and lighting
b) Overcrowded workspaces
c) Delayed payments
d) Lack of medical facilities
Answer: a) Adequate ventilation and lighting
9. Which act in India ensures proper working conditions for employees?
a) Factories Act, 1948
b) Companies Act, 2013
c) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
d) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Answer: a) Factories Act, 1948
10. Employee welfare contributes to:
a) Higher absenteeism rates
b) Better productivity and loyalty
c) Reduced job satisfaction
d) Poor organizational performance
Answer: b) Better productivity and loyalty
11. Welfare measures provided outside the workplace are called:
a) Intramural measures
b) Extramural measures
c) Internal policies
d) Indirect benefits
Answer: b) Extramural measures
12. The term “working conditions” refers to:
a) Salary packages only
b) Physical, social, and psychological aspects of the workplace
c) External economic factors
d) Industry regulations
Answer: b) Physical, social, and psychological aspects of the workplace
13. Who is responsible for ensuring employee welfare in an organization?
a) Human Resources Department
b) Marketing Department
c) Finance Department
d) Production Department
Answer: a) Human Resources Department
14. Employee welfare helps reduce:
a) Employee morale
b) Industrial disputes and conflicts
c) Workplace safety
d) Employee benefits
Answer: b) Industrial disputes and conflicts
15. What is the significance of providing recreational facilities to employees?
a) To increase workload
b) To improve work-life balance and reduce stress
c) To enforce discipline
d) To limit employee interaction
Answer: b) To improve work-life balance and reduce stress
16. Maternity leave policies are an example of:
a) Economic welfare
b) Social welfare
c) Recreational welfare
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Social welfare
17. Which of the following is a benefit of ergonomic workstations?
a) Increased absenteeism
b) Reduced physical strain and injuries
c) Higher maintenance costs
d) Employee dissatisfaction
Answer: b) Reduced physical strain and injuries
18. The minimum age for employment under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act in India is:
a) 10 years
b) 12 years
c) 14 years
d) 18 years
Answer: c) 14 years
19. What is the role of grievance redressal mechanisms in employee welfare?
a) To ignore employee complaints
b) To ensure fair and timely resolution of employee concerns
c) To reduce salaries
d) To increase working hours
Answer: b) To ensure fair and timely resolution of employee concerns
20. Statutory employee welfare measures are:
a) Mandatory as per legal regulations
b) Voluntary benefits provided by employers
c) Decided by individual employees
d) Temporary measures
Answer: a) Mandatory as per legal regulations
21. Effective employee welfare programs improve:
a) Employee dissatisfaction
b) Organizational loyalty and morale
c) Workplace conflicts
d) Delayed work schedules
Answer: b) Organizational loyalty and morale
22. What is a key element of good working conditions?
a) Poor lighting and ventilation
b) Safe and hygienic workplace
c) Inadequate salaries
d) Unregulated work hours
Answer: b) Safe and hygienic workplace
23. Which of the following is NOT a part of employee welfare?
a) Health and safety measures
b) Job training programs
c) Deductions from salaries
d) Recreational activities
Answer: c) Deductions from salaries
24. Which welfare measure helps employees balance personal and professional life?
a) Flexible work hours
b) Strict attendance policies
c) Reduced communication channels
d) Increased workload
Answer: a) Flexible work hours
25. Employee welfare improves organizational culture by:
a) Promoting discrimination
b) Enhancing teamwork and collaboration
c) Creating an unhealthy work environment
d) Limiting employee growth opportunities
Answer: b) Enhancing teamwork and collaboration
26. What is the importance of first-aid facilities in the workplace?
a) To meet legal requirements only
b) To ensure immediate medical assistance during emergencies
c) To increase company profits
d) To reduce employee wages
Answer: b) To ensure immediate medical assistance during emergencies
27. What is a common welfare measure for employees working in factories?
a) Canteens providing affordable meals
b) Delayed salary payments
c) Inadequate break times
d) Unsafe machinery
Answer: a) Canteens providing affordable meals
28. Which of the following is a psychological welfare measure?
a) Providing mental health support and counseling
b) Offering gym memberships
c) Increasing work hours
d) Providing transportation facilities
Answer: a) Providing mental health support and counseling
29. Employee welfare measures should be:
a) Flexible and adaptable to employee needs
b) Focused solely on cost-cutting
c) Identical across all industries
d) Ignored in small organizations
Answer: a) Flexible and adaptable to employee needs
30. Welfare programs that extend to an employee’s family include:
a) Childcare facilities
b) Tuition reimbursement for children
c) Family health insurance plans
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Unit 15: Emerging Trends in HRM
1. What is the primary focus of emerging trends in HRM?
a) Traditional HR practices
b) Adapting to technological advancements and workforce changes
c) Reducing employee benefits
d) Eliminating employee engagement programs
Answer: b) Adapting to technological advancements and workforce changes
2. Which of the following technologies is transforming HR practices?
a) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
b) Blockchain
c) Big Data Analytics
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
3. The use of AI in HR is most commonly seen in:
a) Payroll management
b) Recruitment and talent acquisition
c) Employee termination
d) Office cleaning
Answer: b) Recruitment and talent acquisition
4. What is the primary benefit of HR analytics?
a) Reducing the number of HR employees
b) Data-driven decision-making
c) Increasing manual paperwork
d) Eliminating employee feedback
Answer: b) Data-driven decision-making
5. Which of the following is an example of flexible work arrangements?
a) Remote work
b) Fixed 9-to-5 schedule
c) Overtime work
d) Job termination
Answer: a) Remote work
6. What does the term “gig economy” refer to?
a) Long-term employment contracts
b) Short-term and freelance work arrangements
c) Permanent roles in HR departments
d) Standardized employee benefits
Answer: b) Short-term and freelance work arrangements
7. Which trend emphasizes employee development through continuous learning?
a) Job automation
b) Upskilling and reskilling
c) Employee termination policies
d) Cost-cutting strategies
Answer: b) Upskilling and reskilling
8. Employee wellness programs primarily focus on:
a) Increasing productivity at all costs
b) Enhancing physical and mental well-being
c) Enforcing strict work hours
d) Reducing training costs
Answer: b) Enhancing physical and mental well-being
9. What is the role of HR in fostering diversity and inclusion?
a) Ensuring equal opportunities for all employees
b) Reducing recruitment diversity
c) Ignoring employee differences
d) Prioritizing only specific demographics
Answer: a) Ensuring equal opportunities for all employees
10. Cloud-based HR solutions are beneficial because they:
a) Eliminate HR jobs
b) Enable remote access and real-time data updates
c) Increase manual workload
d) Require no training
Answer: b) Enable remote access and real-time data updates
11. Which of the following is an HR trend driven by globalization?
a) Cross-cultural training programs
b) Increased reliance on local talent only
c) Reduced international mobility
d) Decentralized HR functions
Answer: a) Cross-cultural training programs
12. The use of chatbots in HR is commonly seen in:
a) Employee engagement surveys
b) Automating repetitive tasks like answering FAQs
c) Conducting annual appraisals
d) Managing payroll
Answer: b) Automating repetitive tasks like answering FAQs
13. Gamification in HR refers to:
a) Using games to evaluate employees’ performance
b) Applying game-like elements in employee engagement and training
c) Developing video games for recruitment
d) Eliminating traditional work processes
Answer: b) Applying game-like elements in employee engagement and training
14. Which trend is becoming essential for managing a multi-generational workforce?
a) Standardized training programs
b) Personalized employee experiences
c) Limiting communication channels
d) Reducing flexibility
Answer: b) Personalized employee experiences
15. Virtual Reality (VR) is used in HR for:
a) Performance management
b) Employee training and onboarding
c) Payroll processing
d) Dismissing employees
Answer: b) Employee training and onboarding
16. What is a key feature of employee self-service portals in HR?
a) Allowing employees to manage their own HR-related tasks
b) Automating decision-making for employees
c) Increasing dependency on HR staff
d) Reducing transparency in processes
Answer: a) Allowing employees to manage their own HR-related tasks
17. What is one significant challenge posed by remote work trends?
a) Reduced productivity
b) Maintaining team collaboration and communication
c) Decreasing technological advancements
d) Eliminating HR functions
Answer: b) Maintaining team collaboration and communication
18. The practice of “agile HR” focuses on:
a) Fixed and rigid HR policies
b) Adapting quickly to organizational changes and challenges
c) Reducing employee engagement
d) Avoiding new technologies
Answer: b) Adapting quickly to organizational changes and challenges
19. People analytics involves:
a) Tracking employee attendance manually
b) Using data to understand and improve workforce performance
c) Eliminating employee feedback
d) Simplifying payroll systems
Answer: b) Using data to understand and improve workforce performance
20. What is a major driver for organizations adopting automation in HR processes?
a) Increasing recruitment time
b) Enhancing efficiency and accuracy
c) Reducing technological investments
d) Eliminating HR departments
Answer: b) Enhancing efficiency and accuracy
21. Which of the following HR tools leverages AI for employee engagement?
a) SAP SuccessFactors
b) Microsoft Excel
c) ChatGPT-powered HR chatbots
d) None of the above
Answer: c) ChatGPT-powered HR chatbots
22. Continuous performance management differs from traditional performance appraisals by:
a) Providing real-time feedback and goal tracking
b) Focusing only on annual reviews
c) Ignoring employee development
d) Avoiding regular feedback
Answer: a) Providing real-time feedback and goal tracking
23. Sustainability in HR practices emphasizes:
a) Reducing organizational profitability
b) Fostering environmentally and socially responsible initiatives
c) Limiting employee participation in decision-making
d) Avoiding diversity programs
Answer: b) Fostering environmentally and socially responsible initiatives
24. One of the impacts of automation in recruitment is:
a) Delayed hiring processes
b) Reducing biases in candidate selection
c) Eliminating remote work opportunities
d) Avoiding candidate feedback
Answer: b) Reducing biases in candidate selection
25. Workforce diversity includes differences in:
a) Age, gender, ethnicity, and cultural backgrounds
b) Job roles only
c) Salary levels
d) Work timings
Answer: a) Age, gender, ethnicity, and cultural backgrounds
26. Which of the following is a benefit of virtual onboarding programs?
a) Increased paperwork
b) Cost-effective and accessible employee training
c) Reduced employee retention
d) Delayed communication
Answer: b) Cost-effective and accessible employee training
27. What is the purpose of hybrid work models?
a) Combining remote work with in-office work for flexibility
b) Eliminating work-from-home options
c) Standardizing working hours
d) Increasing employee workloads
Answer: a) Combining remote work with in-office work for flexibility
28. Digital transformation in HR aims to:
a) Replace employees with machines
b) Streamline HR processes through advanced technology
c) Limit employee engagement
d) Reduce communication channels
Answer: b) Streamline HR processes through advanced technology
29. Predictive analytics in HR helps organizations:
a) Anticipate workforce trends and potential issues
b) Eliminate recruitment processes
c) Avoid analyzing employee data
d) Increase employee grievances
Answer: a) Anticipate workforce trends and potential issues
30. What is the role of social media in modern HR practices?
a) Recruitment, employer branding, and employee engagement
b) Reducing employee interactions
c) Avoiding candidate communication
d) Increasing manual recruitment processes
Answer: a) Recruitment, employer branding, and employee engagement
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