Unit 01 : Understanding an Organisation
1. What is an organisation?
a) A group of people working independently
b) A group of people working together to achieve common goals
c) A random collection of individuals
d) A legal entity only
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of an organisation?
a) Lack of structure
b) Informal relationships only
c) Defined roles and responsibilities
d) No common purpose
Answer: c
3. What is the primary purpose of an organisation?
a) Maximizing profits
b) Achieving collective goals
c) Hiring more employees
d) Reducing competition
Answer: b
4. Which type of structure does a formal organisation have?
a) Flexible and undefined
b) Structured and hierarchical
c) Random and unstructured
d) Non-existent
Answer: b
5. The culture of an organisation is defined as:
a) The geographical location of the organisation
b) The shared values, beliefs, and norms within the organisation
c) The organisational hierarchy
d) The financial status of the organisation
Answer: b
6. Who is credited with the classical theory of organisations?
a) Max Weber
b) Elton Mayo
c) Abraham Maslow
d) Peter Drucker
Answer: a
7. Which of the following is NOT a function of management in an organisation?
a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Randomising
d) Controlling
Answer: c
8. What is the most important resource in an organisation?
a) Financial resources
b) Machinery
c) Human resources
d) Raw materials
Answer: c
9. The informal organisation is:
a) Created intentionally by management
b) Based on personal relationships and social networks
c) The same as the formal organisation
d) Structured and rule-driven
Answer: b
10. An example of a tangible organisational resource is:
a) Knowledge
b) Technology
c) Brand reputation
d) Employee motivation
Answer: b
11. Organisational goals can be classified into:
a) Economic, social, and financial
b) Strategic, operational, and financial
c) Formal, informal, and ethical
d) Long-term, short-term, and medium-term
Answer: d
12. A matrix organisational structure involves:
a) Employees reporting to multiple managers
b) No hierarchy or structure
c) A single chain of command
d) Fully centralised decision-making
Answer: a
13. The term ‘span of control’ refers to:
a) The number of subordinates a manager can effectively supervise
b) The geographical area managed by the organisation
c) The size of the workforce
d) The level of customer satisfaction
Answer: a
14. Centralisation in an organisation means:
a) Decision-making is restricted to the top management
b) Authority is delegated to all levels
c) Employees make decisions
d) No decision-making occurs
Answer: a
15. What is the primary advantage of decentralisation?
a) Reduces management workload
b) Prevents employee involvement
c) Eliminates the need for leadership
d) Increases central control
Answer: a
16. The organisational hierarchy is also referred to as:
a) Chain of command
b) Organisational culture
c) Informal structure
d) Work-life balance
Answer: a
17. A flat organisational structure has:
a) Many hierarchical levels
b) Few hierarchical levels
c) No employees
d) No defined roles
Answer: b
18. Which of these is a component of organisational behaviour?
a) Technology adoption
b) Employee attitudes
c) Product quality
d) Market share
Answer: b
19. Bureaucratic organisations are known for:
a) High levels of innovation
b) Strict rules and formal procedures
c) Complete lack of structure
d) Rapid decision-making
Answer: b
20. Organisational effectiveness is measured by:
a) Customer satisfaction only
b) Profitability only
c) Achieving desired goals efficiently and effectively
d) Increasing employee workload
Answer: c
21. What is the role of organisational structure?
a) To increase informal interactions
b) To eliminate hierarchy
c) To define roles, responsibilities, and relationships
d) To ignore operational inefficiencies
Answer: c
22. Which of these is NOT a principle of management?
a) Division of work
b) Authority and responsibility
c) Lack of unity of command
d) Scalar chain
Answer: c
23. What does SWOT analysis stand for?
a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
b) Strategy, Workforce, Operations, and Time
c) Systems, Workers, Operations, and Technology
d) Skills, Weaknesses, Output, and Trends
Answer: a
24. Organisational goals should be:
a) Unclear and vague
b) SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound)
c) Ambiguous and flexible
d) Defined only at the top level
Answer: b
25. Conflict in an organisation is:
a) Always harmful
b) Always beneficial
c) Sometimes necessary for growth
d) Completely avoidable
Answer: c
26. Organisational climate is influenced by:
a) Employee perceptions
b) Market competition
c) Only financial performance
d) Environmental regulations
Answer: a
27. What is the primary focus of organisational behaviour?
a) Market trends
b) Human behaviour within an organisation
c) Competitor analysis
d) Profit maximisation
Answer: b
28. In which stage of organisational growth does formalisation occur?
a) Start-up stage
b) Growth stage
c) Maturity stage
d) Decline stage
Answer: b
29. Which of the following is a feature of a learning organisation?
a) Resistance to change
b) Static knowledge base
c) Continuous improvement and knowledge sharing
d) Focus only on profits
Answer: c
30. What is the difference between a mission and a vision statement?
a) Mission defines the future; vision defines the present
b) Vision is more specific than a mission
c) Mission defines the present; vision defines the future
d) There is no difference
Answer: c
Unit 02 : Introduction to Management and Management Process
1. What is management?
a) Doing tasks without planning
b) The process of planning, organising, leading, and controlling resources
c) Managing people without setting goals
d) Achieving objectives through individual efforts only
Answer: b
2. Who is considered the “Father of Modern Management”?
a) Peter Drucker
b) Henry Fayol
c) Frederick Taylor
d) Elton Mayo
Answer: b
3. Which of the following is NOT a function of management?
a) Planning
b) Directing
c) Organising
d) Disrupting
Answer: d
4. The process of identifying and selecting objectives is known as:
a) Organising
b) Planning
c) Staffing
d) Controlling
Answer: b
5. Which management function involves arranging resources and tasks to achieve objectives?
a) Controlling
b) Leading
c) Organising
d) Planning
Answer: c
6. Which of these is an element of the management process?
a) Motivation
b) Accounting
c) Engineering
d) Manufacturing
Answer: a
7. The “Hawthorne Studies” primarily focused on:
a) Human relations and workplace behavior
b) Machinery efficiency
c) Supply chain management
d) Leadership theories
Answer: a
8. In management, the process of motivating and leading employees is referred to as:
a) Staffing
b) Directing
c) Controlling
d) Organising
Answer: b
9. The management process begins with:
a) Controlling
b) Organising
c) Planning
d) Staffing
Answer: c
10. The role of controlling in the management process is to:
a) Define the organisational mission
b) Correct deviations from goals
c) Delegate tasks
d) Organise resources
Answer: b
11. Management operates at which levels?
a) Strategic, Tactical, and Operational
b) Higher and Lower only
c) Local and International only
d) Financial and Non-financial
Answer: a
12. Which theory focuses on “scientific management”?
a) Bureaucratic theory
b) Administrative theory
c) Taylor’s theory
d) Systems theory
Answer: c
13. Decision-making is most closely related to which management function?
a) Organising
b) Planning
c) Controlling
d) Staffing
Answer: b
14. The term “management by objectives” (MBO) was introduced by:
a) Peter Drucker
b) Henry Fayol
c) Abraham Maslow
d) Frederick Taylor
Answer: a
15. The process of evaluating performance to ensure goals are met is called:
a) Leading
b) Controlling
c) Delegating
d) Organising
Answer: b
16. Which of these is NOT a managerial skill?
a) Conceptual skills
b) Technical skills
c) Cooking skills
d) Human skills
Answer: c
17. Management as a discipline includes:
a) Only planning
b) Principles, techniques, and practices of managing
c) Financial operations only
d) Specific methods for profit maximisation
Answer: b
18. What is the primary focus of management in a business?
a) Achieving organisational goals efficiently and effectively
b) Maximising employee workload
c) Reducing operational efficiency
d) Expanding the workforce
Answer: a
19. Strategic management involves:
a) Daily task allocation
b) Long-term decision-making and planning
c) Employee scheduling
d) Financial recordkeeping
Answer: b
20. The principle of unity of command means:
a) Employees report to multiple managers
b) Each employee should report to only one manager
c) Authority is centralised
d) Work is divided equally
Answer: b
21. Which of the following is part of Henri Fayol’s principles of management?
a) Harmony and discipline
b) Division of work
c) Groupthink
d) Individualisation
Answer: b
22. Delegation refers to:
a) Giving employees the authority to make decisions
b) Centralising decision-making
c) Avoiding task assignments
d) Overloading managers with responsibilities
Answer: a
23. Who introduced the concept of scientific management?
a) Max Weber
b) Frederick Taylor
c) Henry Fayol
d) Peter Drucker
Answer: b
24. Organising as a management function includes:
a) Establishing reporting relationships
b) Monitoring performance
c) Developing a budget
d) Identifying risks
Answer: a
25. What is the purpose of staffing in management?
a) To allocate budgets
b) To ensure the right people are hired for the right jobs
c) To eliminate employee turnover
d) To plan marketing strategies
Answer: b
26. The concept of “span of control” determines:
a) The number of subordinates a manager can effectively supervise
b) The financial span of an organisation
c) The geographical reach of operations
d) The flexibility of decision-making
Answer: a
27. Who described management as “getting things done through others”?
a) Peter Drucker
b) Harold Koontz
c) Henry Fayol
d) Mary Parker Follett
Answer: d
28. Controlling involves comparing performance with:
a) Organisational structure
b) Established standards
c) Employee opinions
d) Management styles
Answer: b
29. Management is considered both an art and a science because:
a) It requires creative skills and systematic knowledge
b) It is only based on creativity
c) It only uses formulas
d) It is unrelated to systematic principles
Answer: a
30. One key limitation of management is:
a) Dependency on external factors
b) Lack of structure in organisations
c) Unavailability of skilled professionals
d) Irrelevance to business goals
Answer: a
Unit 03 : Planning and Decision Making
1. What is planning?
a) A process of randomly assigning tasks
b) Setting objectives and determining how to achieve them
c) Immediate execution of tasks
d) Delegating work without preparation
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of planning?
a) Goal-oriented
b) Time-bound
c) Rigid and inflexible
d) Future-focused
Answer: c
3. Planning helps in:
a) Reducing uncertainty
b) Increasing unpredictability
c) Eliminating organisational goals
d) Avoiding decision-making
Answer: a
4. What is the first step in the planning process?
a) Evaluating alternatives
b) Setting objectives
c) Implementing the plan
d) Allocating resources
Answer: b
5. Strategic planning focuses on:
a) Day-to-day operations
b) Long-term goals and overall direction
c) Hiring and firing employees
d) Inventory management
Answer: b
6. Operational planning is concerned with:
a) Long-term goals
b) Middle management objectives
c) Day-to-day activities and specific tasks
d) Strategic goals
Answer: c
7. Which type of plan outlines specific actions to achieve objectives?
a) Policy
b) Procedure
c) Strategy
d) Tactical plan
Answer: d
8. Contingency planning involves:
a) Planning for routine tasks
b) Preparing for unexpected events
c) Eliminating risks completely
d) Avoiding changes in plans
Answer: b
9. The process of decision-making includes:
a) Identifying a problem and choosing the best alternative
b) Ignoring potential risks
c) Relying only on intuition
d) Implementing without analysis
Answer: a
10. What is the primary objective of decision-making?
a) Maximising confusion
b) Solving problems effectively
c) Eliminating all alternatives
d) Avoiding accountability
Answer: b
11. Tactical planning is performed by:
a) Top-level management
b) Middle-level management
c) Frontline employees
d) Customers
Answer: b
12. A well-defined objective in planning should be:
a) Vague and flexible
b) SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound)
c) Broad and unclear
d) Unrealistic
Answer: b
13. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of planning?
a) Time-consuming process
b) Reduces flexibility
c) Eliminates all risks
d) Requires accurate information
Answer: c
14. Programmed decisions are:
a) Routine and repetitive
b) Unique and one-time
c) Intuitive and emotional
d) Random and unstructured
Answer: a
15. Non-programmed decisions are used when:
a) Problems are routine
b) Situations are unique and complex
c) Decisions are predetermined
d) Tasks are repetitive
Answer: b
16. Brainstorming is a technique used in:
a) Generating multiple ideas and alternatives
b) Eliminating all alternatives
c) Implementing decisions directly
d) Ignoring group input
Answer: a
17. A decision tree is a tool used for:
a) Identifying risks
b) Mapping alternatives and their possible outcomes
c) Eliminating intuition-based decisions
d) Ignoring financial considerations
Answer: b
18. Group decision-making is advantageous because:
a) It eliminates conflicts
b) It encourages diverse perspectives and ideas
c) It reduces time spent on decisions
d) It guarantees agreement
Answer: b
19. Which of the following is NOT a step in the decision-making process?
a) Identifying the problem
b) Implementing the solution
c) Creating risks
d) Evaluating alternatives
Answer: c
20. Risk in decision-making refers to:
a) The uncertainty involved in choosing an alternative
b) Guaranteed outcomes of decisions
c) Eliminating uncertainty entirely
d) Ignoring potential problems
Answer: a
21. A single-use plan is designed for:
a) Repeated tasks
b) Achieving specific, one-time objectives
c) Long-term strategies
d) Everyday operations
Answer: b
22. Policies in planning are:
a) General guidelines for decision-making
b) Detailed step-by-step instructions
c) Irrelevant to organisational goals
d) Specific and measurable
Answer: a
23. What is intuition in decision-making?
a) Using logic only
b) Relying on instincts and experience
c) Avoiding past experiences
d) Eliminating creativity
Answer: b
24. The difference between planning and forecasting is that:
a) Forecasting involves implementing plans
b) Planning determines goals, while forecasting predicts future events
c) Planning ignores uncertainties
d) Forecasting eliminates decision-making
Answer: b
25. A decision made under certainty occurs when:
a) The outcome of each alternative is known
b) No alternatives exist
c) The situation is highly unpredictable
d) Risks are maximised
Answer: a
26. Cost-benefit analysis is used for:
a) Avoiding decision-making
b) Comparing the costs and benefits of alternatives
c) Eliminating financial risks
d) Ignoring resources
Answer: b
27. A key principle of effective decision-making is:
a) Avoiding collaboration
b) Making decisions based on incomplete information
c) Balancing logic and creativity
d) Delegating responsibility
Answer: c
28. Time-bound decisions are essential to:
a) Ensure delays in execution
b) Avoid unnecessary urgency
c) Align with deadlines and organisational needs
d) Increase decision-making time
Answer: c
29. What is the role of feedback in decision-making?
a) To evaluate the success or failure of the decision
b) To avoid further analysis
c) To eliminate alternatives
d) To make random changes
Answer: a
30. The most critical step in planning is:
a) Ignoring the objectives
b) Allocating resources
c) Identifying and prioritising organisational goals
d) Relying solely on intuition
Answer: c
Unit 04 : Organising and Staffing
1. What is organising in management?
a) Assigning tasks randomly
b) Arranging resources to achieve objectives
c) Reducing decision-making
d) Ignoring organisational goals
Answer: b
2. The primary purpose of organising is to:
a) Increase managerial workload
b) Avoid setting objectives
c) Create a structured relationship among tasks and individuals
d) Delay decision-making
Answer: c
3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of organising?
a) Division of work
b) Delegation of authority
c) Defined hierarchy
d) Ignoring accountability
Answer: d
4. The process of dividing work into smaller tasks is called:
a) Delegation
b) Specialisation
c) Authority
d) Centralisation
Answer: b
5. What is the principle of unity of command?
a) One person should have multiple managers
b) Each employee should report to only one manager
c) Authority should be distributed equally
d) Employees can work without supervision
Answer: b
6. Which of the following is a type of organisational structure?
a) Matrix structure
b) Informal group
c) External team
d) Temporary department
Answer: a
7. Line organisation refers to:
a) A structure where authority flows directly from top to bottom
b) A complex network of reporting relationships
c) An informal group of employees
d) Delegating all authority to employees
Answer: a
8. A functional organisation is characterised by:
a) Departmentalisation based on tasks or functions
b) No hierarchy
c) Informal communication
d) Overlapping authority
Answer: a
9. The process of assigning responsibility and authority to subordinates is called:
a) Planning
b) Delegation
c) Controlling
d) Motivation
Answer: b
10. Decentralisation refers to:
a) Retaining authority at the top level
b) Distributing authority to all levels of the organisation
c) Eliminating lower levels of management
d) Avoiding decision-making
Answer: b
11. Which of the following is a benefit of delegation?
a) Reduces managerial workload
b) Eliminates the need for supervision
c) Removes accountability
d) Creates confusion
Answer: a
12. A scalar chain refers to:
a) Communication between unrelated departments
b) A clear line of authority from top to bottom
c) Overlapping responsibilities
d) Elimination of hierarchy
Answer: b
13. Staffing is primarily concerned with:
a) Motivating employees
b) Recruiting and selecting the right people for the right jobs
c) Controlling organisational resources
d) Establishing goals and objectives
Answer: b
14. What is the first step in the staffing process?
a) Performance appraisal
b) Training and development
c) Manpower planning
d) Recruitment
Answer: c
15. Recruitment involves:
a) Selecting employees from internal sources only
b) Attracting potential candidates for job vacancies
c) Appraising current employees
d) Allocating organisational resources
Answer: b
16. Internal recruitment is advantageous because:
a) It always brings new ideas
b) It avoids training costs
c) It motivates existing employees through promotion opportunities
d) It eliminates employee grievances
Answer: c
17. Which of these is a type of external recruitment?
a) Promotions
b) Employee referrals
c) Job portals and advertisements
d) Transfers
Answer: c
18. Selection in staffing refers to:
a) Filling vacancies with random individuals
b) Identifying the most suitable candidate for a specific job
c) Terminating employees
d) Avoiding performance reviews
Answer: b
19. Which test measures a candidate’s ability to perform job-related tasks?
a) Personality test
b) Work sample test
c) Cognitive ability test
d) Medical test
Answer: b
20. The process of familiarising new employees with the organisation is called:
a) Training
b) Orientation
c) Development
d) Delegation
Answer: b
21. Which method focuses on long-term employee development?
a) Job rotation
b) On-the-job training
c) Coaching
d) Management development programs
Answer: d
22. Performance appraisal is used for:
a) Reducing employee responsibilities
b) Evaluating employee performance against set standards
c) Avoiding promotions
d) Ignoring employee potential
Answer: b
23. A major advantage of job enrichment is:
a) Increasing job monotony
b) Adding variety and responsibility to an employee’s role
c) Reducing skill requirements
d) Eliminating employee motivation
Answer: b
24. A flat organisational structure has:
a) Many levels of management
b) Few levels and wide spans of control
c) High degree of centralisation
d) A complex chain of command
Answer: b
25. Informal organisation refers to:
a) The officially structured hierarchy
b) Relationships that arise naturally among employees
c) A rigid chain of command
d) Job-specific reporting structures
Answer: b
26. Which of the following is NOT a component of manpower planning?
a) Forecasting future manpower needs
b) Recruiting randomly
c) Balancing supply and demand of manpower
d) Identifying skill gaps
Answer: b
27. Job analysis involves:
a) Matching employees to specific tasks
b) Defining roles, responsibilities, and qualifications required for a job
c) Setting organisational objectives
d) Creating informal relationships
Answer: b
28. Authority refers to:
a) The right to give orders and make decisions
b) Responsibility for task completion
c) Eliminating hierarchy
d) Delegating only to peers
Answer: a
29. Which principle ensures that work is distributed fairly among employees?
a) Unity of direction
b) Equity
c) Authority-responsibility balance
d) Esprit de corps
Answer: b
30. Span of control refers to:
a) The number of employees a manager can effectively supervise
b) The level of centralisation
c) The authority delegated to subordinates
d) The organisational culture
Answer: a
Unit 05 : Leading
1. Leadership is best defined as:
a) Authority to control others
b) Influencing others to achieve organisational goals
c) Power to command subordinates
d) Delegating tasks to employees
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leadership?
a) Influencing others
b) Establishing direction
c) Creating vision
d) Avoiding communication
Answer: d
3. Autocratic leadership involves:
a) Decentralising authority
b) Centralising authority and decision-making
c) Encouraging employee participation
d) Avoiding supervision
Answer: b
4. Democratic leadership encourages:
a) Limited communication
b) Employees’ participation in decision-making
c) A rigid hierarchical structure
d) Strict control over subordinates
Answer: b
5. Laissez-faire leadership style is also called:
a) Authoritative
b) Supportive
c) Delegative
d) Directive
Answer: c
6. Which leadership style is most suitable for highly skilled employees?
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Transactional
Answer: c
7. Transformational leadership focuses on:
a) Transactional rewards and punishments
b) Inspiring and motivating employees towards change
c) Rigid adherence to rules
d) Short-term goals only
Answer: b
8. Transactional leadership is primarily based on:
a) Emotional connection
b) Rewards and punishments
c) Vision and inspiration
d) Employee autonomy
Answer: b
9. Which of the following is a key element of effective leadership?
a) Avoiding delegation
b) Clear communication
c) Unilateral decision-making
d) Rigid supervision
Answer: b
10. Which leadership theory focuses on traits such as honesty and confidence?
a) Behavioral theory
b) Trait theory
c) Situational theory
d) Transformational theory
Answer: b
11. The Great Man Theory assumes that leaders are:
a) Created through training
b) Born with specific traits
c) Dependent on subordinates
d) Avoiding challenges
Answer: b
12. Which theory suggests that leadership style should adapt to the situation?
a) Behavioral theory
b) Trait theory
c) Situational leadership theory
d) Transactional theory
Answer: c
13. Which component is essential in emotional intelligence for leaders?
a) Self-awareness
b) Ignoring emotions
c) Rigid control over subordinates
d) Avoiding interpersonal relationships
Answer: a
14. A leader with high emotional intelligence is likely to:
a) Be inflexible
b) Empathise with team members
c) Avoid feedback
d) Show overdependence on authority
Answer: b
15. Path-Goal Theory suggests that a leader’s role is to:
a) Assign tasks rigidly
b) Support employees to achieve their goals
c) Dictate solutions to problems
d) Remove autonomy from employees
Answer: b
16. A charismatic leader primarily relies on:
a) Their vision and personal charm to inspire followers
b) Strict rule enforcement
c) Monetary incentives
d) Avoiding employee involvement
Answer: a
17. Leadership style that emphasises trust and long-term relationships is:
a) Autocratic
b) Bureaucratic
c) Servant leadership
d) Authoritarian
Answer: c
18. What is the primary role of a leader in team building?
a) Assign tasks and leave
b) Build trust, cohesion, and a shared vision
c) Focus solely on performance monitoring
d) Discourage creativity
Answer: b
19. Which leadership style is characterised by close monitoring and supervision?
a) Democratic
b) Laissez-faire
c) Autocratic
d) Transformational
Answer: c
20. A leader demonstrating employee-oriented behavior focuses on:
a) Technical aspects of the job
b) Supporting and motivating employees
c) Implementing strict rules
d) Avoiding interaction with employees
Answer: b
21. Which of the following is a limitation of autocratic leadership?
a) Slow decision-making
b) Employee dissatisfaction due to lack of participation
c) Reduced authority of the leader
d) Excessive reliance on feedback
Answer: b
22. Which of the following theories is based on leaders’ behavior rather than traits?
a) Trait theory
b) Behavioral theory
c) Situational theory
d) Transformational theory
Answer: b
23. The Leadership Grid is used to measure:
a) Employee performance
b) A leader’s concern for people and production
c) Organisational structure
d) Goal-setting strategies
Answer: b
24. In Fiedler’s Contingency Model, leadership effectiveness depends on:
a) The leader’s traits only
b) Matching leadership style with the situation
c) The organisation’s size
d) Avoiding employee input
Answer: b
25. Which leadership style is most effective in a crisis?
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Transformational
Answer: a
26. Which is NOT a characteristic of servant leadership?
a) Prioritising the needs of others
b) Empowering team members
c) Authoritarian control
d) Building trust
Answer: c
27. What is the main focus of house’s Path-Goal Theory?
a) Rewarding only the top performers
b) Adapting leadership style to employees’ needs and goals
c) Enforcing organisational rules
d) Avoiding subordinate relationships
Answer: b
28. Which of the following is NOT a leadership quality?
a) Empathy
b) Integrity
c) Avoidance
d) Vision
Answer: c
29. The most critical communication skill for leaders is:
a) Listening actively
b) Speaking aggressively
c) Avoiding feedback
d) Giving orders
Answer: a
30. Leadership is successful when:
a) Employees feel disconnected
b) Organisational goals are achieved effectively
c) Autonomy is completely removed
d) There is no delegation of authority
Answer: b
Unit 06 : Controlling
1. Controlling in management involves:
a) Setting organisational goals
b) Monitoring performance and ensuring objectives are met
c) Assigning roles and responsibilities
d) Avoiding evaluation of processes
Answer: b
2. The first step in the controlling process is:
a) Comparing performance
b) Taking corrective actions
c) Setting performance standards
d) Measuring actual performance
Answer: c
3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of controlling?
a) Continuous process
b) Forward-looking
c) Goal-oriented
d) Avoiding employee involvement
Answer: d
4. Standards in controlling refer to:
a) Arbitrary targets
b) Benchmarks for performance evaluation
c) Random decision-making
d) Eliminating planning
Answer: b
5. Measuring performance involves:
a) Evaluating actual performance against standards
b) Ignoring deviations
c) Overlooking employee productivity
d) Avoiding organisational objectives
Answer: a
6. The final step in the controlling process is:
a) Setting standards
b) Taking corrective actions
c) Measuring performance
d) Allocating resources
Answer: b
7. Which type of control focuses on correcting issues after they occur?
a) Feedforward control
b) Concurrent control
c) Feedback control
d) Preventive control
Answer: c
8. Feedforward control is:
a) Focused on past performance
b) Implemented during operations
c) Proactive and anticipates problems
d) Ignoring future risks
Answer: c
9. Which of the following is an example of concurrent control?
a) Monitoring customer feedback after delivery
b) Ensuring quality during the production process
c) Setting performance benchmarks
d) Reviewing financial performance annually
Answer: b
10. A budget is an example of:
a) Informal control
b) Strategic control
c) Financial control tool
d) Long-term control only
Answer: c
11. Which of these is a technique of controlling?
a) Delegation
b) Management by Exception (MBE)
c) Organising resources
d) Team building
Answer: b
12. Management by Exception (MBE) focuses on:
a) Highlighting only minor issues
b) Addressing significant deviations from standards
c) Ignoring employee performance
d) Eliminating monitoring systems
Answer: b
13. Which tool is used to control the production schedule?
a) Financial statements
b) Gantt chart
c) Balance scorecard
d) Training manual
Answer: b
14. The primary purpose of controlling is to:
a) Limit employees’ freedom
b) Ensure that organisational goals are achieved effectively
c) Assign random tasks to employees
d) Reduce communication
Answer: b
15. Which of the following is NOT a type of control?
a) Operational control
b) Strategic control
c) Informal control
d) Passive control
Answer: d
16. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are used to:
a) Set long-term goals
b) Measure critical aspects of performance
c) Eliminate need for feedback
d) Ignore performance benchmarks
Answer: b
17. What is the role of corrective actions in controlling?
a) Ignoring deviations
b) Adjusting processes to meet standards
c) Setting new organisational goals
d) Replacing all employees
Answer: b
18. Which of the following is a financial control tool?
a) Quality checklist
b) Ratio analysis
c) Job rotation
d) Training schedule
Answer: b
19. Benchmarking in controlling refers to:
a) Comparing performance against industry standards
b) Ignoring competitors’ performance
c) Setting arbitrary goals
d) Eliminating evaluation
Answer: a
20. Controlling is closely linked with which other management function?
a) Organising
b) Planning
c) Staffing
d) Leading
Answer: b
21. What is the focus of operational control?
a) Monitoring long-term plans
b) Ensuring daily activities are carried out efficiently
c) Evaluating organisational culture
d) Setting corporate strategy
Answer: b
22. Which of these is a non-financial control tool?
a) Budgeting
b) Productivity analysis
c) Cash flow statement
d) Profit and loss statement
Answer: b
23. The Balanced Scorecard measures performance across:
a) Only financial metrics
b) Financial and non-financial perspectives
c) Random employee feedback
d) Short-term operational goals
Answer: b
24. Which type of control uses a system of policies, procedures, and rules?
a) Strategic control
b) Bureaucratic control
c) Clan control
d) Informal control
Answer: b
25. Clan control relies on:
a) Formal hierarchy
b) Shared values and norms within the organisation
c) Strict supervision
d) Written policies
Answer: b
26. Variance analysis in controlling involves:
a) Ignoring deviations
b) Comparing actual performance to budgeted performance
c) Developing employee policies
d) Eliminating performance reviews
Answer: b
27. Which of the following is a limitation of controlling?
a) Helps achieve goals
b) Monitors performance
c) Can lead to resistance from employees
d) Identifies deviations
Answer: c
28. What is Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB)?
a) Allocating resources based on past budgets
b) Preparing the budget from scratch every period
c) Ignoring future requirements
d) Random allocation of funds
Answer: b
29. Total Quality Management (TQM) is an example of:
a) Strategic control
b) Quality control approach
c) Feedback control only
d) Eliminating corrective actions
Answer: b
30. Which statement about controlling is TRUE?
a) It is a static process
b) It focuses only on financial performance
c) It ensures that organisational activities meet goals
d) It ignores deviations
Answer: c
Unit 07 : Introduction to Organisational Behaviour
1. Organisational Behaviour (OB) is primarily concerned with:
a) The study of financial performance
b) The study of human behaviour in organisational settings
c) The analysis of supply chain processes
d) The structure of organisational hierarchy
Answer: b
2. The primary focus of Organisational Behaviour is on:
a) Individual, group, and organisational dynamics
b) Technological advancements in organisations
c) Marketing strategies
d) Financial control
Answer: a
3. The three levels of analysis in OB are:
a) Individuals, teams, and society
b) Individuals, groups, and organisations
c) Leaders, managers, and employees
d) Strategy, structure, and culture
Answer: b
4. Organisational Behaviour is an interdisciplinary field that draws from:
a) Psychology, sociology, and anthropology
b) Physics and chemistry
c) Computer science and mathematics
d) Economics and biology
Answer: a
5. Which of the following best describes OB?
a) It focuses only on individual behaviour.
b) It studies both human and structural aspects of organisations.
c) It ignores group interactions.
d) It focuses solely on leadership styles.
Answer: b
6. The study of perception in OB focuses on:
a) Understanding how individuals interpret their environment
b) Financial decision-making
c) Designing organisational structure
d) Technological adoption
Answer: a
7. The field of OB helps organisations to:
a) Improve profitability only
b) Understand and improve employee behaviour
c) Eliminate employee participation
d) Focus only on external stakeholders
Answer: b
8. The concept of motivation in OB refers to:
a) An individual’s willingness to exert effort to achieve goals
b) The process of decision-making in organisations
c) The methods of monitoring employee performance
d) The structure of teams
Answer: a
9. Organisational culture refers to:
a) Shared values, beliefs, and norms within an organisation
b) The rules of behaviour set by the government
c) The financial systems of the organisation
d) The organisational structure
Answer: a
10. Which of the following is a key component of organisational behaviour?
a) Technical processes
b) Organisational politics
c) Individual attitudes, values, and emotions
d) Marketing strategies
Answer: c
11. Job satisfaction in OB is best defined as:
a) The feeling of fulfilment from financial rewards
b) An individual’s overall attitude towards their job
c) Avoidance of responsibility in the workplace
d) Adherence to organisational policies
Answer: b
12. The concept of personality in OB refers to:
a) An individual’s external appearance
b) The unique set of psychological traits influencing behaviour
c) The role of individuals in decision-making
d) The hierarchical structure of teams
Answer: b
13. Which of the following theories is associated with motivation?
a) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
b) Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
c) McClelland’s Theory of Needs
d) All of the above
Answer: d
14. Organisational citizenship behaviour refers to:
a) Acts of non-compliance with organisational rules
b) Voluntary behaviours that contribute to organisational success
c) Mandatory tasks assigned to employees
d) Formal communication processes
Answer: b
15. The Big Five Personality Traits in OB include:
a) Extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness
b) Intelligence, leadership, power, perception, and motivation
c) Authority, vision, discipline, passion, and teamwork
d) Creativity, dominance, optimism, patience, and enthusiasm
Answer: a
16. A key concept in group dynamics is:
a) The structure of teams
b) How individuals interact and influence each other in groups
c) How tasks are assigned in groups
d) The financial performance of teams
Answer: b
17. Attitudes in OB are best described as:
a) The physical actions of employees
b) The feelings and beliefs that influence behaviour
c) The methods of organisational communication
d) The structure of management
Answer: b
18. A learning organisation is one that:
a) Focuses on adapting and continuously improving
b) Follows strict, unchanging processes
c) Prioritises financial goals over employee growth
d) Ignores innovation and creativity
Answer: a
19. Emotional intelligence in OB is defined as:
a) The ability to solve organisational problems
b) The ability to understand and manage one’s own and others’ emotions
c) The process of making decisions under stress
d) The development of technical skills
Answer: b
20. Which of the following is an example of group behaviour in organisations?
a) Individual decision-making
b) Team collaboration on a project
c) Employee performance appraisal
d) Development of organisational goals
Answer: b
21. Organisational Behaviour is considered a:
a) Science only
b) Purely theoretical discipline
c) Both science and art
d) Technological field
Answer: c
22. The term power in OB refers to:
a) Authority to force compliance
b) The ability to influence others to achieve goals
c) The organisational structure of leadership
d) The distribution of technical resources
Answer: b
23. Which of the following is an OB approach to conflict resolution?
a) Avoiding all disagreements
b) Collaborating and negotiating to find mutually beneficial solutions
c) Ignoring employee disputes
d) Imposing decisions without consultation
Answer: b
24. Theory X and Theory Y in OB were proposed by:
a) Abraham Maslow
b) Douglas McGregor
c) Frederick Taylor
d) Elton Mayo
Answer: b
25. Theory X assumes employees are:
a) Self-motivated and enjoy responsibility
b) Lazy and require strict supervision
c) Always motivated by rewards
d) Motivated by group goals
Answer: b
26. In contrast, Theory Y assumes employees:
a) Avoid responsibility
b) Are inherently motivated and seek opportunities for growth
c) Require micromanagement
d) Lack creativity
Answer: b
27. Cognitive dissonance in OB refers to:
a) A mismatch between attitudes and behaviour
b) Employee dissatisfaction with their roles
c) Organisational restructuring
d) Performance measurement
Answer: a
28. Which discipline contributes to the study of group dynamics in OB?
a) Sociology
b) Anthropology
c) Psychology
d) All of the above
Answer: d
29. Which of the following is an example of organisational behaviour modification?
a) Rewarding employees for desired behaviour
b) Ignoring performance deviations
c) Eliminating employee autonomy
d) Focusing solely on financial performance
Answer: a
30. The Hawthorne Studies concluded that:
a) Financial incentives are the only motivators
b) Employee productivity is influenced by social factors and attention
c) Strict supervision improves performance
d) Individual behaviour has no impact on organisational goals
Answer: b
Unit 08 : Individual Behaviour – 1 (Personality and Perception)
1. Personality in organisational behaviour refers to:
a) External appearance of an individual
b) The unique and stable traits that influence behaviour
c) Only the physical attributes of a person
d) Temporary emotional states
Answer: b
2. Which theory of personality suggests that personality is composed of basic traits?
a) Trait theory
b) Psychoanalytic theory
c) Behavioural theory
d) Humanistic theory
Answer: a
3. The “Big Five” model of personality includes:
a) Intelligence, motivation, power, creativity, and patience
b) Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism
c) Optimism, dominance, extroversion, vision, and enthusiasm
d) Leadership, teamwork, discipline, passion, and performance
Answer: b
4. An extrovert is someone who:
a) Prefers solitude and internal reflection
b) Gains energy from social interactions and external activities
c) Avoids social interaction
d) Lacks decision-making ability
Answer: b
5. Which personality trait is most associated with being organised and dependable?
a) Openness
b) Conscientiousness
c) Neuroticism
d) Agreeableness
Answer: b
6. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) measures personality across how many dimensions?
a) Two
b) Four
c) Five
d) Eight
Answer: b
7. A person with high emotional stability is likely to:
a) Be anxious and emotionally reactive
b) Handle stress calmly and remain confident
c) Avoid challenges at all costs
d) Be indifferent to outcomes
Answer: b
8. Perception is best defined as:
a) The process of interpreting and understanding sensory information
b) A fixed and unchanging view of the environment
c) The ability to think rationally
d) An individual’s emotional response to events
Answer: a
9. The factors affecting perception include:
a) The perceiver, the target, and the situation
b) Only the physical environment
c) Financial incentives
d) Cultural norms alone
Answer: a
10. Selective perception occurs when:
a) People focus on all available stimuli equally
b) Individuals interpret information based on their interests and background
c) Perception is completely objective
d) Sensory input is ignored altogether
Answer: b
11. Stereotyping in perception refers to:
a) Forming a generalized opinion about a group or category
b) Evaluating individuals based on unique traits
c) Avoiding judgements
d) Ignoring all prior knowledge
Answer: a
12. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing personality development?
a) Heredity
b) Environment
c) Education
d) Random chance
Answer: d
13. Attribution theory explains how:
a) Individuals attribute success to luck only
b) People interpret the causes of behaviour and events
c) Emotions are generated
d) Teams are formed in organisations
Answer: b
14. The fundamental attribution error occurs when:
a) Individuals underestimate situational factors and overestimate personal traits
b) People focus only on external causes of behaviour
c) Individuals ignore the impact of personality
d) Situational factors are given undue importance
Answer: a
15. Locus of control is best described as:
a) The degree to which people believe they control their own outcomes
b) The physical environment of an individual
c) A measure of emotional intelligence
d) The ability to delegate authority
Answer: a
16. Internal locus of control refers to:
a) Believing outcomes are controlled by external forces
b) Believing outcomes are a result of personal effort and decisions
c) Avoiding responsibility for success or failure
d) Relying entirely on team dynamics
Answer: b
17. The halo effect in perception occurs when:
a) One trait influences the overall impression of a person
b) All traits are evaluated objectively
c) Negative traits are ignored completely
d) Perceptions are unaffected by emotions
Answer: a
18. Projection in perception refers to:
a) Assigning one’s own attributes or feelings to others
b) Completely avoiding judgements
c) Accurately evaluating others’ behaviour
d) Overlooking one’s own biases
Answer: a
19. Self-monitoring in personality refers to:
a) The ability to regulate behaviour based on social cues
b) An individual’s tendency to ignore others
c) Emotional stability
d) Avoidance of self-awareness
Answer: a
20. Which of the following is a personality assessment tool?
a) SWOT analysis
b) MBTI (Myers-Briggs Type Indicator)
c) Business process analysis
d) Statistical variance analysis
Answer: b
21. Type A personalities are typically:
a) Relaxed and easy-going
b) Competitive, ambitious, and time-conscious
c) Unmotivated and indifferent
d) Passive and disengaged
Answer: b
22. Which term describes the enduring traits that affect behaviour?
a) Attitudes
b) Personality
c) Perception
d) Values
Answer: b
23. Which perception shortcut leads to drawing a complete conclusion about a person based on a single observed trait?
a) Stereotyping
b) The halo effect
c) Projection
d) Selective perception
Answer: b
24. Which term describes how we organise and interpret sensory impressions?
a) Motivation
b) Perception
c) Leadership
d) Cognition
Answer: b
25. Which Big Five personality trait is associated with imagination and creativity?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Openness
c) Neuroticism
d) Agreeableness
Answer: b
26. Emotional stability is the opposite of:
a) Neuroticism
b) Openness
c) Agreeableness
d) Conscientiousness
Answer: a
27. Perception in OB is influenced by:
a) Culture, background, and experience
b) Only organisational policies
c) Environmental factors alone
d) Financial resources
Answer: a
28. The first stage of the perceptual process is:
a) Interpretation
b) Selective attention
c) Organisation of data
d) Response generation
Answer: b
29. Which of the following is NOT part of the Big Five model of personality?
a) Intelligence
b) Extraversion
c) Openness
d) Agreeableness
Answer: a
30. Values in OB are:
a) Long-lasting beliefs that influence behaviour
b) Temporary emotional states
c) Random preferences
d) Only organisational policies
Answer: a
Unit 09 : Individual Behaviour – 2 (Values, Attitudes and Emotions)
1. Values are best described as:
a) Temporary emotional states
b) Long-lasting beliefs that guide behaviour and decision-making
c) Random preferences
d) Actions influenced by external factors
Answer: b
2. Terminal values focus on:
a) Specific modes of behaviour
b) End goals like success, happiness, and peace
c) Day-to-day decision-making
d) Short-term objectives
Answer: b
3. Instrumental values refer to:
a) Desirable end-states of existence
b) Preferred modes of behaviour or means to achieve goals
c) Temporary emotional responses
d) Rigid attitudes
Answer: b
4. What is the primary difference between values and attitudes?
a) Values are situational, whereas attitudes are permanent
b) Values are general beliefs, whereas attitudes are specific evaluations
c) Attitudes are long-lasting, while values are temporary
d) Values do not influence behaviour, whereas attitudes do
Answer: b
5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of values?
a) They are relatively stable
b) They are shaped by culture and upbringing
c) They change frequently with emotions
d) They guide behaviour
Answer: c
6. Attitudes are composed of three components. These are:
a) Emotional, logical, and practical
b) Cognitive, affective, and behavioural
c) Personal, societal, and cultural
d) Short-term, medium-term, and long-term
Answer: b
7. The cognitive component of an attitude refers to:
a) The feelings associated with the attitude
b) The belief or knowledge about the attitude object
c) The actions taken in response to the attitude
d) Temporary emotional reactions
Answer: b
8. The affective component of an attitude refers to:
a) The actions resulting from the attitude
b) The feelings or emotions associated with the attitude
c) The knowledge or beliefs about the attitude object
d) Cultural influences on the attitude
Answer: b
9. The behavioural component of an attitude refers to:
a) How an individual intends to act based on their attitude
b) The feelings associated with the attitude
c) The knowledge about the attitude object
d) The impact of culture on behaviour
Answer: a
10. Cognitive dissonance occurs when:
a) Behaviour and attitudes are inconsistent
b) Values remain stable over time
c) Emotions dominate logical thinking
d) There is no conflict between beliefs and actions
Answer: a
11. Which theory explains the relationship between attitudes and behaviour?
a) Attribution theory
b) Expectancy theory
c) Theory of planned behaviour
d) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
Answer: c
12. Job satisfaction is an example of:
a) A value
b) An attitude
c) An emotion
d) A perception
Answer: b
13. Emotions are best defined as:
a) Stable patterns of behaviour over time
b) Intense feelings directed at someone or something
c) Logical evaluations of situations
d) Temporary cognitive responses
Answer: b
14. Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to:
a) Avoid emotions in decision-making
b) Recognise, understand, and manage one’s own emotions and those of others
c) Focus solely on cognitive reasoning
d) Suppress emotions entirely
Answer: b
15. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of emotional intelligence?
a) Self-awareness
b) Social skills
c) Technical competence
d) Empathy
Answer: c
16. Positive emotions typically result in:
a) Improved decision-making and relationships
b) Increased conflict and stress
c) Decreased productivity
d) Ignoring others’ perspectives
Answer: a
17. Which of the following emotions is classified as a negative emotion?
a) Joy
b) Excitement
c) Sadness
d) Contentment
Answer: c
18. Emotional contagion refers to:
a) The spread of emotions from one person to another
b) The ability to suppress emotions
c) Intense emotional responses to specific situations
d) Avoiding emotional expression
Answer: a
19. Which of the following factors influences values the most?
a) Genetics
b) Cultural background and upbringing
c) Physical environment
d) Workplace dynamics
Answer: b
20. The attitude most relevant to job performance is:
a) Job satisfaction
b) Political attitude
c) Personal attitude
d) Religious attitude
Answer: a
21. Emotional labour is defined as:
a) The process of managing feelings to fulfill job roles
b) The physical work involved in an emotional situation
c) A type of counselling in organisations
d) Avoiding emotional expression at work
Answer: a
22. A person with high emotional intelligence is likely to:
a) Avoid conflict at all costs
b) Understand and manage their emotions effectively
c) Focus only on task completion
d) Suppress all emotional responses
Answer: b
23. Which term refers to the degree of emotional attachment an employee has to their organisation?
a) Emotional stability
b) Organisational commitment
c) Cognitive dissonance
d) Job satisfaction
Answer: b
24. The affective component of job satisfaction refers to:
a) Emotional attachment to the job
b) The belief about one’s role in the job
c) The actions taken to improve job conditions
d) The organisational policies
Answer: a
25. Which term describes how attitudes are formed through learning and experiences?
a) Cognitive learning
b) Attitude formation
c) Emotional feedback
d) Behavioural observation
Answer: b
26. Emotions are:
a) Long-lasting and stable
b) Short-term and intense
c) Irrelevant in workplace behaviour
d) Always consistent with logic
Answer: b
27. Which theory explains how emotions affect decision-making?
a) Expectancy theory
b) Affect infusion model
c) Attribution theory
d) Herzberg’s two-factor theory
Answer: b
28. High job satisfaction typically leads to:
a) Lower absenteeism and turnover
b) Increased stress levels
c) Reduced organisational commitment
d) Conflict with management
Answer: a
29. Emotional dissonance occurs when:
a) There is a mismatch between displayed and felt emotions
b) Emotions are fully aligned with job expectations
c) Individuals suppress negative emotions
d) Only positive emotions are expressed
Answer: a
30. Organisational citizenship behaviour (OCB) is influenced by:
a) Attitudes and emotions towards the organisation
b) External market conditions
c) Random factors
d) Formal rules and regulations
Answer: a
Unit 10 : Individual Behaviour – 3 (Learning, Motivation)
1. Learning is defined as:
a) Temporary changes in behaviour
b) A process resulting in permanent change in behaviour due to experience
c) Behavioural changes caused by external rewards only
d) A biological process
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of learning?
a) It is a continuous process
b) It involves knowledge, skills, and attitudes
c) It always occurs consciously
d) It is based on experience
Answer: c
3. Which learning theory emphasizes the relationship between stimulus and response?
a) Classical conditioning
b) Operant conditioning
c) Social learning theory
d) Cognitive learning
Answer: a
4. Who is the pioneer of classical conditioning?
a) Abraham Maslow
b) Ivan Pavlov
c) B.F. Skinner
d) Albert Bandura
Answer: b
5. In classical conditioning, the unconditioned response is:
a) A learned behaviour
b) A natural response to a stimulus
c) A response to a conditioned stimulus
d) None of the above
Answer: b
6. Operant conditioning focuses on:
a) Involuntary responses
b) The consequences of behaviour
c) Observational learning
d) Logical reasoning
Answer: b
7. Who introduced operant conditioning?
a) Albert Bandura
b) Ivan Pavlov
c) B.F. Skinner
d) Frederick Herzberg
Answer: c
8. In operant conditioning, reinforcement is used to:
a) Decrease the likelihood of a behaviour
b) Strengthen or increase the likelihood of a behaviour
c) Punish unwanted behaviour
d) Eliminate all responses
Answer: b
9. Negative reinforcement involves:
a) Removing an unpleasant stimulus to strengthen behaviour
b) Punishing undesirable behaviour
c) Ignoring certain actions
d) Presenting an unpleasant consequence
Answer: a
10. Observational learning is also known as:
a) Operant conditioning
b) Classical conditioning
c) Modeling
d) Reinforcement learning
Answer: c
11. Who proposed the Social Learning Theory?
a) B.F. Skinner
b) Abraham Maslow
c) Albert Bandura
d) Ivan Pavlov
Answer: c
12. Motivation is defined as:
a) External rewards only
b) A process that initiates, guides, and sustains goal-oriented behaviour
c) A biological response to stress
d) A fixed personality trait
Answer: b
13. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Physiological needs
b) Safety needs
c) Psychological needs
d) Self-actualization needs
Answer: c
14. According to Maslow, self-actualization refers to:
a) Basic physical needs
b) The need to realize one’s full potential
c) Social belongingness
d) Financial stability
Answer: b
15. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory categorizes motivators into:
a) Hygiene factors and motivators
b) Internal and external factors
c) Personal and professional factors
d) Intrinsic and extrinsic rewards
Answer: a
16. Hygiene factors in Herzberg’s theory are:
a) Motivational by nature
b) Related to job satisfaction
c) Related to job dissatisfaction
d) Both satisfaction and dissatisfaction
Answer: c
17. Intrinsic motivation is driven by:
a) External rewards
b) Fear of punishment
c) Personal satisfaction and internal rewards
d) Pressure from peers
Answer: c
18. Which theory emphasizes expectancy, instrumentality, and valence?
a) Equity theory
b) Expectancy theory
c) Goal-setting theory
d) Reinforcement theory
Answer: b
19. Equity theory focuses on:
a) Balancing effort and outcome in comparison to others
b) Maximizing rewards
c) Reinforcing desired behaviour
d) Goal clarity and commitment
Answer: a
20. Goal-setting theory suggests that:
a) Setting vague goals enhances motivation
b) Specific and challenging goals improve performance
c) Motivation depends entirely on external rewards
d) Goals do not influence behaviour
Answer: b
21. McClelland’s Theory of Needs focuses on:
a) Need for achievement, affiliation, and power
b) Physiological, safety, and esteem needs
c) Extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
d) Goal-setting and reinforcement
Answer: a
22. Which of the following is NOT part of McClelland’s needs theory?
a) Need for achievement
b) Need for security
c) Need for affiliation
d) Need for power
Answer: b
23. Reinforcement theory suggests that:
a) Behaviour is determined by its consequences
b) Motivation is based on cognitive reasoning
c) Goals are the primary motivators
d) External influences do not matter
Answer: a
24. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?
a) Praising an employee for completing a task
b) Ignoring undesirable behaviour
c) Criticizing an employee for making a mistake
d) Removing obstacles to complete work
Answer: a
25. The drive reduction theory of motivation emphasizes:
a) Reducing cognitive dissonance
b) Satisfying basic physiological needs
c) Increasing rewards for motivation
d) Achieving higher-level goals
Answer: b
26. Which motivation theory is best suited for employees who value autonomy and mastery?
a) Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
b) Self-Determination Theory
c) Equity Theory
d) Classical Conditioning
Answer: b
27. Extrinsic motivation is influenced by:
a) Internal satisfaction
b) Personal values
c) External rewards such as money or recognition
d) Biological instincts
Answer: c
28. The Yerkes-Dodson Law suggests that:
a) High arousal always leads to better performance
b) Optimal arousal levels depend on task complexity
c) Low arousal is ideal for all tasks
d) Arousal does not impact performance
Answer: b
29. Which motivational theory emphasizes fairness in rewards?
a) Equity Theory
b) Reinforcement Theory
c) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
d) Goal-Setting Theory
Answer: a
30. Which of the following best describes “shaping” in operant conditioning?
a) Reinforcing successive approximations of desired behaviour
b) Punishing undesired behaviour immediately
c) Observing others to learn behaviours
d) Setting challenging goals
Answer: a
Unit 11 : Group Behaviour – 1 (Introduction to Group Behaviour)
1. What is a group in the context of organisational behaviour?
a) A collection of people with common hobbies
b) A collection of individuals who interact with each other to achieve common goals
c) A collection of employees in the same department
d) A gathering of people at the same location
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a group?
a) Formal leadership
b) Shared goals
c) Hierarchical structure
d) Financial independence
Answer: b
3. What differentiates a group from a team?
a) Groups have shared accountability, while teams do not
b) Teams have a stronger focus on collective goals than groups
c) Teams always consist of more members than groups
d) Groups are always informal, while teams are formal
Answer: b
4. Which of the following is NOT a type of group?
a) Formal group
b) Informal group
c) Virtual group
d) Interdependent group
Answer: d
5. Formal groups are primarily created to:
a) Meet personal needs of employees
b) Fulfill organisational objectives
c) Build informal relationships
d) Encourage competition
Answer: b
6. What is an informal group?
a) A group defined by organisational structure
b) A group that forms naturally due to shared interests
c) A team assigned to a specific project
d) A group led by a manager
Answer: b
7. Which of the following is a primary group in organisational behaviour?
a) Family
b) A project team
c) Departmental committee
d) Customer support team
Answer: a
8. Secondary groups are typically characterised by:
a) Close and personal relationships
b) Formal and task-oriented interactions
c) Informal and casual meetings
d) Immediate familial ties
Answer: b
9. The five stages of group development were introduced by:
a) Henry Fayol
b) Tuckman
c) Abraham Maslow
d) Elton Mayo
Answer: b
10. What is the first stage of Tuckman’s group development model?
a) Norming
b) Performing
c) Forming
d) Storming
Answer: c
11. Which stage of Tuckman’s model involves conflict resolution within the group?
a) Forming
b) Storming
c) Norming
d) Performing
Answer: c
12. In which stage of group development does the group focus on achieving goals?
a) Forming
b) Storming
c) Performing
d) Adjourning
Answer: c
13. The ‘adjourning’ stage in group development is associated with:
a) Celebrating group achievements
b) Resolving conflicts
c) Task delegation
d) Completing the task and disbanding
Answer: d
14. A cohesive group is defined as one where:
a) Members compete aggressively
b) Members feel a sense of belonging and work well together
c) Members avoid communication
d) Members are focused solely on personal goals
Answer: b
15. Which factor does NOT influence group cohesion?
a) Group size
b) Leadership style
c) Availability of financial resources
d) Shared goals
Answer: c
16. Social loafing refers to:
a) Increased effort by group members
b) Reduced effort by individuals when working in a group
c) Equal contribution by all group members
d) Delegation of tasks
Answer: b
17. Which of the following helps to minimise social loafing?
a) Increasing group size
b) Setting individual accountability
c) Avoiding performance measurement
d) Encouraging informal group formation
Answer: b
18. Groupthink occurs when:
a) Group members criticise each other
b) Group members value harmony over critical thinking
c) Group decisions are based solely on data
d) Groups lack strong leadership
Answer: b
19. What is a virtual group?
a) A group that meets in person regularly
b) A group that interacts primarily through technology
c) A temporary group within an organisation
d) A social group formed outside work
Answer: b
20. Role conflict occurs when:
a) An individual is assigned multiple incompatible roles
b) Group members agree on roles
c) A group lacks defined roles
d) Roles within a group are clearly structured
Answer: a
21. Norms in a group are defined as:
a) Leadership rules
b) Unwritten rules and standards of behavior
c) Organisational goals
d) Formal job descriptions
Answer: b
22. What is the impact of group norms on individual behaviour?
a) They prevent individuals from performing
b) They guide acceptable behaviour within the group
c) They restrict personal growth
d) They eliminate the need for leadership
Answer: b
23. A reference group is:
a) A group that sets benchmarks for evaluating self
b) A team assigned to complete a task
c) A group of competitors in the same field
d) An informal group formed within an organisation
Answer: a
24. Which of the following is an example of a task role in a group?
a) Mediator
b) Coordinator
c) Encourager
d) Follower
Answer: b
25. Maintenance roles in a group are focused on:
a) Achieving group tasks
b) Building and maintaining relationships
c) Generating creative ideas
d) Ensuring procedural compliance
Answer: b
26. Which of the following best describes a role ambiguity?
a) Clear understanding of one’s role
b) Uncertainty regarding responsibilities
c) Strong role differentiation
d) Overlapping roles within the group
Answer: b
27. The Hawthorne Studies highlighted the importance of:
a) Formal rules
b) Social and group dynamics
c) Financial incentives
d) Organisational policies
Answer: b
28. The term “ingroup” refers to:
a) A group viewed positively by outsiders
b) A group to which an individual belongs and feels loyalty
c) A group that is considered inferior by others
d) A group without clear objectives
Answer: b
29. An outgroup is defined as:
a) A rival group perceived negatively by an ingroup
b) A subgroup within an organisation
c) A virtual team with no direct interaction
d) A leadership group within the organisation
Answer: a
30. The impact of individual differences in group behaviour includes all EXCEPT:
a) Diversity of thought
b) Group cohesion
c) Uniform decision-making
d) Conflict management
Answer: c
Unit 12 : Group Behaviour – 2 (The Team)
1. What is a team in the context of organisational behaviour?
a) A group of employees working independently
b) A cohesive unit of individuals with complementary skills working towards a common goal
c) A department within the organisation
d) A collection of individuals with similar roles
Answer: b
2. What distinguishes a team from a group?
a) Teams have shared accountability and interdependence
b) Teams have no specific goals
c) Teams do not require leadership
d) Teams are always informal
Answer: a
3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective team?
a) Clear goals
b) Open communication
c) Internal conflict
d) Trust among members
Answer: c
4. Cross-functional teams are composed of:
a) Members from the same department
b) Members with diverse skills and expertise from different departments
c) Employees who share the same job role
d) Teams that work without leadership
Answer: b
5. A self-managed team is one that:
a) Has no designated leader and functions independently
b) Operates with complete freedom and no accountability
c) Manages itself but aligns with organisational goals
d) Focuses solely on individual tasks
Answer: c
6. The primary purpose of a virtual team is to:
a) Work without face-to-face interaction using technology
b) Perform tasks unrelated to organisational objectives
c) Avoid collaboration and focus on individual performance
d) Operate only within a single geographical location
Answer: a
7. What is the primary advantage of a virtual team?
a) Low cost and limited supervision
b) Increased global collaboration and flexibility
c) Minimal conflict due to lack of communication
d) Reduced need for team coordination
Answer: b
8. Team norms are best described as:
a) Written organisational policies
b) Unwritten rules and expectations governing team behavior
c) Job descriptions provided by management
d) Formal performance standards
Answer: b
9. Which of the following is NOT a type of team in an organisation?
a) Cross-functional team
b) Self-managed team
c) Virtual team
d) Individual task team
Answer: d
10. The forming stage of a team’s development involves:
a) Assigning roles and responsibilities
b) Establishing clear goals and resolving conflicts
c) Initial team member interactions and building relationships
d) Achieving optimal performance
Answer: c
11. The storming stage in team development is characterised by:
a) Conflict and competition among team members
b) Achievement of the team’s primary objectives
c) Smooth collaboration and agreement
d) Disbanding of the team
Answer: a
12. Which of the following occurs in the norming stage of team development?
a) High team conflict
b) Formation of strong relationships and trust
c) Disbanding of the team
d) Avoidance of teamwork
Answer: b
13. Which of the following best describes the performing stage in team development?
a) Team members work independently
b) Teams achieve synergy and focus on high performance
c) Team disbandment and completion of tasks
d) Frequent unresolved conflicts
Answer: b
14. The adjourning stage in a team refers to:
a) Team members forming new groups
b) Conflict resolution
c) Disbanding after achieving the objective
d) Redefining goals
Answer: c
15. What is the primary goal of a problem-solving team?
a) To execute a specific task assigned by management
b) To provide solutions to identified challenges within the organisation
c) To monitor employee performance
d) To create informal work relationships
Answer: b
16. Team cohesion refers to:
a) The ability of the team to solve conflicts
b) The level of trust and bonding among team members
c) The formal structure of the team
d) The hierarchy within the organisation
Answer: b
17. Which of the following factors contributes to team cohesion?
a) Clear goals and regular interaction
b) Large team size
c) Lack of leadership
d) Poor communication
Answer: a
18. Which type of team handles tasks requiring high technical expertise?
a) Self-managed team
b) Functional team
c) Cross-functional team
d) Project team
Answer: d
19. Social loafing in teams is:
a) Enhanced teamwork
b) Reduced individual effort when working in a group
c) Increased accountability among members
d) Higher motivation to achieve team goals
Answer: b
20. What strategy can help reduce social loafing?
a) Increasing group size
b) Focusing on individual accountability and clear goals
c) Encouraging informal meetings
d) Reducing communication
Answer: b
21. What is the role of a team leader?
a) To dictate individual tasks
b) To provide direction, manage conflict, and ensure goal alignment
c) To work independently from the team
d) To avoid involvement in decision-making
Answer: b
22. The synergy effect in teams refers to:
a) The combined effort being greater than the sum of individual efforts
b) Avoiding collaboration for individual success
c) Reduced team performance due to conflicts
d) Independent contributions without coordination
Answer: a
23. Which of the following is an example of a task role in a team?
a) Encourager
b) Gatekeeper
c) Information seeker
d) Mediator
Answer: c
24. Maintenance roles in a team focus on:
a) Developing technical expertise
b) Building interpersonal relationships and ensuring harmony
c) Achieving organisational goals independently
d) Resolving external issues
Answer: b
25. A dysfunctional team is characterised by:
a) Strong interpersonal relationships
b) High levels of trust
c) Frequent conflicts and lack of accountability
d) Synergistic performance
Answer: c
26. Conflict in a team can be beneficial when:
a) It is unresolved
b) It encourages diverse viewpoints and creative solutions
c) It causes team members to avoid each other
d) It reduces the overall performance
Answer: b
27. Which is NOT a method to enhance team performance?
a) Setting clear goals
b) Open communication
c) Encouraging competition among team members
d) Providing regular feedback
Answer: c
28. Team diversity improves performance by:
a) Reducing the need for collaboration
b) Enhancing creativity and innovation through varied perspectives
c) Ensuring similar skill sets among all members
d) Simplifying decision-making processes
Answer: b
29. The role of team norms is to:
a) Ensure informal communication
b) Guide team behaviour and set expectations
c) Eliminate conflict among members
d) Minimise interaction among members
Answer: b
30. High-performing teams are often distinguished by:
a) Rigid hierarchical structures
b) Effective collaboration, trust, and mutual respect
c) Lack of leadership
d) Individual competition
Answer: b
Unit 13 : Group Behaviour – 3 (Leadership)
1. What is leadership in the context of organisational behaviour?
a) The act of giving orders
b) The ability to influence a group towards achieving goals
c) The process of managing resources
d) The role of enforcing discipline
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leadership?
a) Visionary thinking
b) Influencing others
c) Delegating all responsibilities
d) Building relationships
Answer: c
3. What is the primary difference between a leader and a manager?
a) Managers focus on tasks, while leaders inspire and motivate
b) Leaders enforce policies, while managers influence others
c) Managers work informally, while leaders work formally
d) Leaders are always appointed, while managers emerge informally
Answer: a
4. Which leadership style is characterised by centralised decision-making and strict control?
a) Autocratic leadership
b) Democratic leadership
c) Laissez-faire leadership
d) Transformational leadership
Answer: a
5. In a democratic leadership style:
a) The leader makes all decisions without consulting the team
b) Decisions are made collaboratively with team input
c) The leader avoids involvement in decision-making
d) Employees follow orders strictly
Answer: b
6. What is the primary feature of laissez-faire leadership?
a) High levels of control
b) Delegation of authority and minimal interference by the leader
c) Collective decision-making
d) Focus on organisational policies
Answer: b
7. Which leadership style is best suited for highly skilled and motivated employees?
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Bureaucratic
Answer: c
8. Transformational leadership focuses on:
a) Strict adherence to rules
b) Inspiring and motivating followers to achieve extraordinary outcomes
c) Avoiding change and maintaining the status quo
d) Minimising employee involvement in decision-making
Answer: b
9. Which leadership theory suggests that effective leadership depends on the situation?
a) Trait theory
b) Behavioural theory
c) Situational theory
d) Charismatic leadership theory
Answer: c
10. The trait theory of leadership suggests that:
a) Leadership skills can be developed
b) Certain inherent traits make an individual a good leader
c) Leadership depends on follower behaviour
d) Leadership is determined by organisational culture
Answer: b
11. Which of the following is NOT a trait commonly associated with effective leaders?
a) Confidence
b) Emotional intelligence
c) Rigidity
d) Integrity
Answer: c
12. The behavioural theory of leadership focuses on:
a) Personality traits
b) Actions and behaviours of leaders
c) Situational factors
d) Organisational culture
Answer: b
13. The two primary dimensions of leadership in the Ohio State studies are:
a) Task-oriented and relationship-oriented behaviour
b) Democratic and autocratic styles
c) Visionary and transactional leadership
d) Motivational and directive leadership
Answer: a
14. The managerial grid model by Blake and Mouton focuses on:
a) Leadership traits
b) The balance between concern for people and concern for production
c) The impact of organisational culture on leadership
d) The role of technology in leadership
Answer: b
15. Which quadrant of the managerial grid represents the most effective leadership style?
a) Low concern for people, high concern for production
b) High concern for both people and production
c) High concern for people, low concern for production
d) Low concern for both people and production
Answer: b
16. According to Fiedler’s contingency theory, leadership effectiveness depends on:
a) The leader’s charisma
b) The fit between leadership style and situational factors
c) The leader’s authority within the organisation
d) The number of followers in the team
Answer: b
17. In Fiedler’s model, a task-oriented leader is more effective when:
a) Situations are highly favourable or highly unfavourable
b) Situations are moderately favourable
c) Employees are highly motivated
d) The team is highly cohesive
Answer: a
18. Path-goal theory suggests that a leader’s role is to:
a) Dictate employee tasks
b) Clear obstacles and guide employees towards achieving goals
c) Make all decisions independently
d) Minimise employee participation
Answer: b
19. Which of the following is NOT a leadership behaviour in the path-goal theory?
a) Supportive leadership
b) Directive leadership
c) Achievement-oriented leadership
d) Transformational leadership
Answer: d
20. Transactional leadership focuses on:
a) Rewards and punishments to achieve goals
b) Inspiring followers to achieve beyond expectations
c) Minimising employee involvement in decision-making
d) Avoiding change in the organisation
Answer: a
21. Charismatic leaders are known for:
a) Rigid decision-making
b) Inspiring loyalty and enthusiasm through personal charm and vision
c) Avoiding risks and challenges
d) Delegating all responsibilities
Answer: b
22. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of transformational leadership?
a) Inspirational motivation
b) Intellectual stimulation
c) Individual consideration
d) Focus on short-term goals
Answer: d
23. Servant leadership focuses on:
a) Achieving organisational profitability
b) Serving the needs of employees and empowering them to succeed
c) Maintaining strict control over team members
d) Avoiding employee involvement
Answer: b
24. Which of the following is an example of ethical leadership?
a) Leading by example and maintaining integrity
b) Prioritising personal goals over organisational goals
c) Encouraging unethical shortcuts to achieve results
d) Focusing solely on profits
Answer: a
25. The leadership style most suitable for a crisis situation is:
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Laissez-faire
d) Transformational
Answer: a
26. Which leadership style encourages creativity and innovation the most?
a) Autocratic
b) Transactional
c) Transformational
d) Bureaucratic
Answer: c
27. The Goleman leadership style framework focuses on:
a) Emotional intelligence and situational leadership styles
b) Organisational profitability
c) Rigid hierarchical leadership
d) Fixed leadership behaviours
Answer: a
28. Which leadership theory highlights the leader-member exchange (LMX)?
a) Path-goal theory
b) Contingency theory
c) Leader-Member Exchange theory
d) Behavioural theory
Answer: c
29. In LMX theory, high-quality leader-member relationships result in:
a) Low employee satisfaction
b) Higher trust, loyalty, and performance
c) Reduced communication
d) Minimal team cohesion
Answer: b
30. What is the primary focus of strategic leadership?
a) Day-to-day operational management
b) Long-term vision and aligning organisational goals with external opportunities
c) Minimising innovation
d) Avoiding external influences on decision-making
Answer: b
Unit 14 : Power, Politics, Conflict, Negotiation and Stress
1. What is power in the context of organisational behaviour?
a) Authority derived from one’s position
b) The ability to influence others to achieve goals
c) Control over resources
d) The formal structure of an organisation
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is NOT a source of power?
a) Legitimate power
b) Coercive power
c) Collaborative power
d) Expert power
Answer: c
3. Legitimate power is based on:
a) Knowledge and expertise
b) Position within the organisational hierarchy
c) Ability to reward or punish
d) Personal charm
Answer: b
4. Which type of power is derived from the ability to provide rewards?
a) Expert power
b) Reward power
c) Coercive power
d) Referent power
Answer: b
5. Referent power is based on:
a) The fear of punishment
b) Charisma, respect, and admiration from others
c) Formal authority
d) Knowledge and expertise
Answer: b
6. Expert power is derived from:
a) Control over resources
b) Knowledge, skills, and expertise in a specific area
c) Positional authority
d) Interpersonal relationships
Answer: b
7. Organisational politics refers to:
a) Interpersonal conflicts within an organisation
b) Activities aimed at acquiring and using power to achieve goals
c) Decision-making by top management
d) Formal organisational policies
Answer: b
8. Which of the following is a common reason for organisational politics?
a) Scarcity of resources
b) Strong organisational culture
c) High levels of trust
d) Clear decision-making processes
Answer: a
9. Political behaviour in organisations is often driven by:
a) Shared goals and cooperation
b) Self-interest and personal gains
c) Open communication
d) Stable organisational environments
Answer: b
10. Which of the following is NOT a tactic for managing organisational politics?
a) Open communication
b) Building trust among employees
c) Encouraging transparency
d) Focusing solely on personal goals
Answer: d
11. What is an example of positive organisational politics?
a) Manipulating others to gain resources
b) Aligning political actions with organisational goals
c) Withholding information for personal benefit
d) Undermining team performance
Answer: b
12. Conflict in an organisation occurs when:
a) Goals and interests of individuals or groups are aligned
b) Disagreements arise due to differences in goals, values, or perceptions
c) Employees cooperate to achieve a shared goal
d) Resources are abundantly available
Answer: b
13. Which of the following is NOT a type of conflict in organisations?
a) Interpersonal conflict
b) Intragroup conflict
c) Extrinsic conflict
d) Intergroup conflict
Answer: c
14. Task conflict is concerned with:
a) Personal differences between individuals
b) Disagreements about the content and goals of the work
c) Power struggles within a team
d) Emotional disputes between employees
Answer: b
15. Relationship conflict is characterised by:
a) Emotional tensions and personal incompatibilities
b) Disagreements over work processes
c) Collaborative decision-making
d) Aligned goals and objectives
Answer: a
16. Which conflict management style focuses on achieving a win-win solution?
a) Competing
b) Avoiding
c) Collaborating
d) Accommodating
Answer: c
17. The “avoiding” style of conflict resolution is suitable when:
a) The issue is trivial or temporary
b) An immediate decision is required
c) Relationships are not important
d) There is a need for clear competition
Answer: a
18. Negotiation is defined as:
a) Avoiding conflicts in the workplace
b) A process of discussion aimed at reaching a mutually beneficial agreement
c) Assigning tasks to employees
d) Resolving conflicts through formal procedures
Answer: b
19. Which of the following is NOT a key step in the negotiation process?
a) Preparation
b) Bargaining and problem-solving
c) Withholding information
d) Closure and implementation
Answer: c
20. Distributive negotiation focuses on:
a) A win-win outcome
b) Dividing resources and achieving one party’s gain at the other’s expense
c) Building long-term relationships
d) Creating value for all parties involved
Answer: b
21. Integrative negotiation aims to:
a) Maximise individual benefits
b) Divide resources equally
c) Achieve win-win outcomes by addressing mutual interests
d) Avoid conflict altogether
Answer: c
22. Which of the following is critical for effective negotiation?
a) Emotional detachment
b) Clear communication and active listening
c) Avoiding compromise
d) Ignoring the other party’s interests
Answer: b
23. BATNA in negotiation stands for:
a) Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement
b) Basic Approach to Negotiation and Agreement
c) Bargaining and Tactical Negotiation Arrangement
d) Better Agreement Through Negotiation Analysis
Answer: a
24. Stress in an organisational context refers to:
a) Physical illness caused by work pressure
b) The psychological and physical response to demands exceeding individual resources
c) Relaxation techniques for employees
d) A positive state of mind
Answer: b
25. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of stress at work?
a) Work overload
b) Role ambiguity
c) Effective time management
d) Interpersonal conflicts
Answer: c
26. Eustress is a term used to describe:
a) Negative stress that hampers performance
b) Positive stress that motivates and enhances performance
c) Chronic stress that leads to burnout
d) Stress that has no impact on performance
Answer: b
27. Role conflict arises when:
a) Job roles are unclear
b) Employees face contradictory demands or expectations
c) There is no alignment with organisational goals
d) Team members share similar tasks
Answer: b
28. Burnout refers to:
a) A short-term reaction to stress
b) Emotional, mental, and physical exhaustion caused by prolonged stress
c) The ability to adapt to stressful situations
d) A lack of motivation in employees
Answer: b
29. Which of the following is an effective way to manage stress?
a) Ignoring workplace conflicts
b) Promoting work-life balance and employee wellness programs
c) Increasing workloads to improve performance
d) Avoiding communication
Answer: b
30. The primary focus of stress management training is to:
a) Eliminate all stress from the workplace
b) Develop coping strategies and improve resilience
c) Reduce employee accountability
d) Increase organisational control over employees
Answer: b
Unit 15 : Culture and Change
1. What is organisational culture?
a) The rules and regulations of an organisation
b) The shared values, beliefs, and norms within an organisation
c) The organisational hierarchy
d) The external environment of an organisation
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is NOT a component of organisational culture?
a) Shared values
b) Norms and behaviours
c) Organisational goals
d) Employee benefits
Answer: d
3. Organisational culture is often described as:
a) “The personality of the organisation”
b) “The rules of engagement”
c) “The decision-making process”
d) “The structure of the organisation”
Answer: a
4. Who introduced the concept of organisational culture as a “three-level model”?
a) Edgar Schein
b) Abraham Maslow
c) Peter Drucker
d) Frederick Taylor
Answer: a
5. Which level of Schein’s model of organisational culture is the most visible?
a) Assumptions
b) Values
c) Artefacts
d) Norms
Answer: c
6. Which of the following represents the deepest level of culture according to Schein’s model?
a) Artefacts
b) Espoused values
c) Basic underlying assumptions
d) Goals
Answer: c
7. A strong organisational culture is characterised by:
a) High levels of employee turnover
b) Widely shared and deeply held core values
c) A lack of innovation and change
d) Strict adherence to rules and regulations
Answer: b
8. Which type of culture is flexible and encourages innovation and risk-taking?
a) Hierarchy culture
b) Adhocracy culture
c) Market culture
d) Clan culture
Answer: b
9. A clan culture focuses on:
a) Individualism and competition
b) Teamwork, collaboration, and employee development
c) Profitability and results
d) Maintaining stability and control
Answer: b
10. What is the primary focus of a market culture?
a) Innovation
b) Customer satisfaction and competitiveness
c) Employee well-being
d) Collaboration
Answer: b
11. What is organisational change?
a) Minor modifications in work schedules
b) A planned or unplanned transformation in structure, processes, or culture
c) The routine operations of an organisation
d) Replacing employees to improve performance
Answer: b
12. Which of the following is NOT a type of organisational change?
a) Strategic change
b) Cultural change
c) Personal change
d) Structural change
Answer: c
13. What is the primary driver of organisational change?
a) Organisational hierarchy
b) Internal and external environmental factors
c) Employee preferences
d) Financial stability
Answer: b
14. Which model of change management is based on the three stages of unfreezing, changing, and refreezing?
a) Lewin’s Change Model
b) Kotter’s 8-Step Model
c) ADKAR Model
d) McKinsey 7S Framework
Answer: a
15. The first step in Lewin’s Change Model is:
a) Refreezing
b) Changing
c) Unfreezing
d) Planning
Answer: c
16. Which of the following is NOT a step in Kotter’s 8-Step Model for Change?
a) Establishing a sense of urgency
b) Creating a vision for change
c) Ignoring resistance
d) Empowering others to act on the vision
Answer: c
17. Resistance to change can be caused by:
a) Fear of the unknown
b) Clear communication
c) Strong leadership
d) Employee participation
Answer: a
18. Which of the following is a strategy for overcoming resistance to change?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Effective communication and involvement
c) Imposing change without explanation
d) Increasing work pressure
Answer: b
19. The ADKAR Model for change focuses on:
a) Leadership styles
b) Individual transition through Awareness, Desire, Knowledge, Ability, and Reinforcement
c) Organisational structure
d) Financial resources
Answer: b
20. Which change management approach focuses on aligning seven organisational elements?
a) Lewin’s Change Model
b) McKinsey 7S Framework
c) Kotter’s 8-Step Model
d) ADKAR Model
Answer: b
21. Culture can act as a barrier to change because:
a) Employees adapt easily to new processes
b) Strong cultures resist behaviours that deviate from norms
c) Organisational goals are unclear
d) Leadership is weak
Answer: b
22. Which of the following is an example of cultural change in an organisation?
a) Introducing new technology without employee training
b) Modifying the organisational hierarchy
c) Shifting focus from competition to collaboration
d) Reducing the number of employees
Answer: c
23. What is cultural inertia?
a) The process of reinforcing cultural norms
b) Resistance to changing the organisational culture
c) Adoption of new cultural practices
d) A culture that promotes innovation
Answer: b
24. Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences cultural change?
a) Leadership changes
b) Technological advancements
c) Employee engagement
d) Natural disasters
Answer: d
25. Subcultures within an organisation:
a) Are always aligned with the overall organisational culture
b) Can influence and shape cultural change
c) Have no impact on organisational performance
d) Replace the dominant culture
Answer: b
26. Leaders play a key role in cultural change by:
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Leading by example and reinforcing desired behaviours
c) Delegating all responsibilities
d) Avoiding communication
Answer: b
27. Transformational leaders are effective in cultural change because they:
a) Maintain stability at all costs
b) Inspire and motivate employees to embrace the vision for change
c) Avoid conflict and challenges
d) Focus only on short-term goals
Answer: b
28. A change-ready culture is characterised by:
a) Resistance to innovation
b) Openness to new ideas and adaptability
c) Strict adherence to traditional practices
d) Lack of employee involvement
Answer: b
29. Which of the following can help sustain cultural change?
a) Rewarding behaviours that align with the new culture
b) Relying solely on verbal communication
c) Allowing employees to revert to old habits
d) Avoiding monitoring progress
Answer: a
30. An effective cultural change initiative requires:
a) Leadership commitment and employee involvement
b) Rapid, unplanned changes
c) Ignoring the existing culture
d) High levels of conflict and competition
Answer: a
