Statistics for Management: Essential MCQs You Must Know

Table of Contents

Unit 01 : Introduction to Statistics

1. What is Statistics?

The study of the Earth’s structure.
The study of human behavior.
The science of collecting, organizing, analyzing, and interpreting data.
None of the above.Answer: 3

2. What are the two main types of Statistics?

Quantitative and Qualitative.
Descriptive and Inferential.
Experimental and Observational.
Mathematical and Applied.Answer: 2

3. Descriptive statistics focus on:

Making predictions about a population.
Summarizing and organizing data.
Determining causal relationships.
Conducting hypothesis testing.Answer: 2

4. Inferential statistics focus on:

Describing data using measures of central tendency.
Drawing conclusions about a population based on a sample.
Representing data visually.
Measuring variability within a data set.Answer: 2

5. A population is:

A subset of individuals from a larger group.
The entire group being studied.
A single observation in a dataset.
None of the above.Answer: 2

6. A sample is:

The entire group being studied.
A subset of a population.
A variable measured in a study.
A numerical value summarizing data.Answer: 2

7. A parameter is:

A numerical summary of a population.
A numerical summary of a sample.
A type of inferential statistic.
A graphical representation of data.Answer: 1

8. A statistic is:

A numerical measure describing a sample.
A theoretical distribution.
Always equal to the parameter.
A value that predicts future trends.Answer: 1

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of variable?

Quantitative
Qualitative
Nominal
RandomAnswer: 4

10. Data that can take on any value within a range is called:

Discrete data.
Continuous data.
Nominal data.
Ordinal data.Answer: 2

11. Nominal data refers to:

Data measured on a numerical scale.
Data that categorizes without any order.
Data measured in ranks.
Continuous variables.Answer: 2

12. Ordinal data refers to:

Data categorized without order.
Data ranked in a meaningful order.
Data measured on an interval scale.
Data that cannot be analyzed statistically.Answer: 2

13. Interval scale data:

Lacks a true zero.
Has both order and a true zero.
Categorizes without any order.
None of the above.Answer: 1

14. Ratio scale data has:

A true zero and equal intervals.
Only nominal categories.
Only ranks without measurable intervals.
Equal intervals but no true zero.Answer: 1

15. Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?

Age in years.
Salary in dollars.
Types of colors in a product.
Height in centimeters.Answer: 3

16. The number of employees in a department is an example of:

Continuous data.
Discrete data.
Qualitative data.
Ratio scale data.Answer: 2

17. The primary purpose of statistics in management is:

To complicate decision-making.
To make data collection easier.
To aid in data-driven decision-making.
To avoid variability in data.Answer: 3

18. What is a key characteristic of a random sample?

Selected based on convenience.
Every individual has an equal chance of being chosen.
Chosen from the largest group possible.
Limited to small data sets.Answer: 2

19. Which of the following best defines primary data?

Data that has been summarized.
Data collected firsthand for a specific purpose.
Data obtained from external sources.
None of the above.Answer: 2

20. Secondary data refers to:

Data that is outdated.
Data collected and published by someone else.
Data collected directly by the researcher.
None of the above.Answer: 2

21. The process of organizing and summarizing data is called:

Data interpretation.
Data analysis.
Data presentation.
Data visualization.Answer: 2

22. A bar chart is best used for:

Comparing categories of data.
Showing trends over time.
Displaying parts of a whole.
Plotting continuous variables.Answer: 1

23. A pie chart represents:

Categorical data as a proportion of a whole.
Trends over time.
Continuous data.
Random data distribution.Answer: 1

24. A histogram is used for:

Displaying frequencies of continuous data.
Comparing data categories.
Showing relationships between variables.
Measuring central tendency.Answer: 1

25. Central tendency measures include:

Mean, variance, and mode.
Mean, median, and mode.
Median, standard deviation, and range.
Mean, standard deviation, and variance. Answer: 2

26. Dispersion in statistics refers to:

The central value of data.
The spread of data points.
The frequency of data categories.
None of the above.Answer: 2

27. The mean is:

The middle value of a dataset.
The most frequent value in a dataset.
The sum of all values divided by the number of values.
The range of the dataset.Answer: 3

28. Median is best used when:

Data is continuous.
The dataset has extreme values (outliers).
Data is nominal.
All data points are identical.Answer: 2

29. Mode is useful for:

Measuring the spread of data.
Summarizing categorical data.
Finding the average value in a dataset.
Analyzing continuous data.Answer: 2

30. What does the range measure in statistics?

The difference between the largest and smallest values.
The average of all data points.
The most frequently occurring value.
The middle value in a dataset.Answer: 1

Unit 02 : Statistical Survey

What is a statistical survey?
a) A mathematical calculation
b) A systematic collection of data
c) A graphical representation of data
d) A hypothesis testing method
Answer: b
Which of the following is NOT a type of survey?
a) Personal interview
b) Telephonic survey
c) Descriptive statistics
d) Online survey
Answer: c
The first step in conducting a survey is:
a) Collecting data
b) Analyzing data
c) Defining the objective
d) Presenting results
Answer: c
What is the purpose of a pilot survey?
a) To collect data on a large scale
b) To test the feasibility of the survey
c) To analyze the final results
d) To avoid sampling errors
Answer: b
A survey conducted at a specific point in time is called:
a) Longitudinal survey
b) Cross-sectional survey
c) Random survey
d) Systematic survey
Answer: b
A survey that collects data over a period of time is known as:
a) Cross-sectional survey
b) Pilot survey
c) Longitudinal survey
d) Cluster survey
Answer: c
Which of the following is a method of primary data collection?
a) Census reports
b) Government publications
c) Observations
d) Journals
Answer: c
Which method is most suitable for sensitive information in surveys?
a) Personal interviews
b) Focus groups
c) Mail surveys
d) Anonymous online surveys
Answer: d
A population census is an example of:
a) Sampling survey
b) Complete enumeration
c) Pilot survey
d) Longitudinal survey
Answer: b
Stratified sampling divides the population into:
a) Equal groups
b) Random clusters
c) Homogeneous groups
d) Overlapping groups
Answer: c
Which type of sampling is also known as “random sampling”?
a) Quota sampling
b) Judgmental sampling
c) Simple random sampling
d) Convenience sampling
Answer: c
The term “respondent” in a survey refers to:
a) The surveyor
b) The person answering the survey
c) The data analyst
d) The person designing the survey
Answer: b
What is a questionnaire?
a) A verbal discussion guide
b) A set of written questions for data collection
c) A report summarizing survey results
d) A statistical tool for analysis
Answer: b
The process of converting survey responses into numerical data is called:
a) Sampling
b) Data validation
c) Coding
d) Questionnaire design
Answer: c
Open-ended questions in surveys are used to:
a) Generate numerical data
b) Gather detailed qualitative information
c) Simplify data analysis
d) Force specific responses
Answer: b
Closed-ended questions in surveys are:
a) Difficult to analyze
b) Open to subjective interpretation
c) Easier to analyze statistically
d) Always optional
Answer: c
Sampling error occurs due to:
a) Poor questionnaire design
b) Selection of only a part of the population
c) Incorrect data coding
d) Misinterpretation of survey results
Answer: b
Non-sampling error arises from:
a) The sample size
b) Errors in survey design or execution
c) Random selection
d) Use of a complete enumeration method
Answer: b
A biased sample leads to:
a) Accurate survey results
b) Misleading conclusions
c) Reduced sample size
d) Faster data collection
Answer: b
What is the main advantage of random sampling?
a) Cost reduction
b) Elimination of all biases
c) Equal chance for every member to be included
d) Quick data collection
Answer: c
Convenience sampling selects:
a) A representative group
b) The easiest members to reach
c) Groups based on specific characteristics
d) A large portion of the population
Answer: b
What is the main drawback of quota sampling?
a) It is time-consuming
b) It lacks randomness
c) It requires large populations
d) It is expensive
Answer: b
What is the ideal sample size for a survey?
a) Always 1000 participants
b) It depends on the population size and purpose
c) The larger, the better
d) At least 50% of the population
Answer: b
Sampling frame refers to:
a) The group of questions in the survey
b) The list of population members eligible for sampling
c) The method of analyzing survey results
d) The period during which the survey is conducted
Answer: b
A systematic sample selects members:
a) Based on convenience
b) In fixed intervals from a list
c) Randomly from each stratum
d) Based on surveyor judgment
Answer: b
What is cluster sampling?
a) Selecting small groups randomly and surveying all members
b) Dividing the population into strata
c) Collecting data from overlapping groups
d) Selecting every nth member from a list
Answer: a
The primary aim of a statistical survey is to:
a) Test theoretical models
b) Collect data to address a specific research question
c) Increase sample size
d) Compare two populations
Answer: b
In data collection, reliability refers to:
a) Consistency of results across repeated trials
b) Accuracy of the survey question wording
c) Correctness of survey results
d) Cost-effectiveness of the survey method
Answer: a
Validity in a survey ensures that:
a) The survey results are repeatable
b) The survey measures what it intends to measure
c) The survey covers a large population
d) The survey results are easy to analyze
Answer: b
Which of the following is NOT a method of conducting surveys?
a) Personal interviews
b) Observational studies
c) Focus groups
d) Census reports
Answer: d

Unit 3: Classification, Tabulation and Presentation of Data

Classification of data refers to:
a) Analyzing the data numerically
b) Organizing data into categories or groups
c) Summarizing data using graphs
d) Eliminating errors from the dataset
Answer: b
The primary purpose of classification is to:
a) Simplify data for better understanding
b) Eliminate irrelevant data
c) Increase data accuracy
d) Perform hypothesis testing
Answer: a
Data classified based on time is called:
a) Geographical classification
b) Chronological classification
c) Quantitative classification
d) Qualitative classification
Answer: b
When data is grouped based on location, it is known as:
a) Chronological classification
b) Qualitative classification
c) Geographical classification
d) Quantitative classification
Answer: c
Qualitative classification is based on:
a) Non-measurable characteristics
b) Numerical data
c) Geographical location
d) Time series data
Answer: a
What is the first step in tabulation?
a) Collecting the data
b) Sorting the data
c) Defining the table’s purpose
d) Drawing the table structure
Answer: c
A table that shows data for only one characteristic is called:
a) Simple table
b) Complex table
c) Frequency table
d) Multivariate table
Answer: a
A table that includes multiple characteristics is known as a:
a) Simple table
b) Complex table
c) Frequency distribution table
d) Pie table
Answer: b
Which part of a table provides details about the data?
a) Stub
b) Body
c) Title
d) Caption
Answer: c
The vertical columns in a table are known as:
a) Rows
b) Stubs
c) Captions
d) Columns
Answer: d
The horizontal rows in a table are called:
a) Captions
b) Titles
c) Stubs
d) Columns
Answer: c
Which of the following is NOT a type of data presentation?
a) Tabular
b) Graphical
c) Diagrammatic
d) Inferential
Answer: d
Graphical representation of data is used to:
a) Eliminate redundant data
b) Make data visually interpretable
c) Perform numerical analysis
d) Increase survey size
Answer: b
A bar chart is best for representing:
a) Continuous data
b) Categorical data
c) Time series data
d) Random data
Answer: b
A pie chart represents data as:
a) Bars
b) A circular diagram
c) A line graph
d) A frequency polygon
Answer: b
Which type of graph is used for time series data?
a) Line graph
b) Histogram
c) Pie chart
d) Bar chart
Answer: a
A histogram is used to represent:
a) Categorical data
b) Frequency distribution of continuous data
c) Data with outliers
d) Time-based data
Answer: b
The difference between a histogram and a bar chart is:
a) Bars in a histogram are separated
b) Bars in a bar chart are adjacent
c) Histogram bars are adjacent, while bar chart bars are separated
d) There is no difference
Answer: c
A frequency polygon is constructed using:
a) Points connected by straight lines
b) Circular diagrams
c) Stacked bars
d) Unorganized data
Answer: a
Ogives are used to represent:
a) Mean and median
b) Cumulative frequency distribution
c) Discrete data
d) Variability of data
Answer: b
Tabulation helps in:
a) Calculating the mode
b) Summarizing and presenting data systematically
c) Drawing inferences about data
d) Removing anomalies from data
Answer: b
Classification is essential because it:
a) Hides irrelevant data
b) Simplifies the presentation of data
c) Ensures accuracy in analysis
d) Avoids repetitive calculations
Answer: b
A scatter diagram shows:
a) Relationship between two variables
b) Frequency of data
c) Geographical classification
d) Categorical data distribution
Answer: a
When data is divided into intervals, it is called:
a) Frequency distribution
b) Ogive representation
c) Nominal classification
d) Raw data
Answer: a
Data that is not organized is called:
a) Raw data
b) Classified data
c) Tabulated data
d) Summarized data
Answer: a
The midpoint of a class interval in a frequency table is called:
a) Class limit
b) Class boundary
c) Class mark
d) Frequency limit
Answer: c
The cumulative frequency is the:
a) Total frequency of all classes
b) Frequency of a single class
c) Sum of frequencies up to a particular class
d) Maximum frequency in a dataset
Answer: c
Which of the following is NOT a part of a statistical table?
a) Title
b) Captions
c) Marginal notes
d) Standard deviation
Answer: d
A diagram used to represent grouped data is:
a) Pie chart
b) Histogram
c) Line graph
d) Scatter plot
Answer: b
Classification, tabulation, and presentation of data aim to:
a) Perform statistical calculations
b) Simplify and organize raw data for analysis
c) Increase the volume of data
d) Remove outliers from the data
Answer: b

Unit 04 : Measures of Central Tendency and Dispersion

Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Standard deviation
d) Mode
Answer: c
The mean of a dataset is:
a) The middlemost value
b) The most frequently occurring value
c) The sum of all values divided by the number of observations
d) The difference between the highest and lowest values
Answer: c
The median is defined as:
a) The average of all data points
b) The middle value when data is arranged in order
c) The most frequently occurring value
d) The range of the dataset
Answer: b
In a dataset, mode refers to:
a) The largest value
b) The smallest value
c) The value that appears most frequently
d) The average of the dataset
Answer: c
Which measure of central tendency is most appropriate for categorical data?
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Range
Answer: c
When is the median preferred over the mean?
a) When the data is symmetric
b) When there are outliers in the data
c) When the dataset is small
d) When all values are equal
Answer: b
For a perfectly symmetrical distribution, the mean, median, and mode are:
a) Always equal
b) Different
c) Unrelated
d) Undefined
Answer: a
The weighted mean is used when:
a) All data points have equal importance
b) Different data points have different levels of importance
c) The dataset is skewed
d) The range of data is large
Answer: b
In a dataset with two modes, the distribution is called:
a) Unimodal
b) Bimodal
c) Multimodal
d) Symmetric
Answer: b
Range is defined as:
a) The difference between the mean and mode
b) The average of all data values
c) The difference between the maximum and minimum values
d) The sum of squared deviations from the mean
Answer: c
The measure of dispersion that considers all data points is:
a) Range
b) Variance
c) Mode
d) Median
Answer: b
The square root of variance is:
a) Range
b) Mean deviation
c) Standard deviation
d) Coefficient of variation
Answer: c
Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion?
a) Range
b) Coefficient of variation
c) Variance
d) Standard deviation
Answer: b
The interquartile range (IQR) measures:
a) The total range of the data
b) The difference between the first and third quartiles
c) The standard deviation of the dataset
d) The variance of the dataset
Answer: b
Which measure is most sensitive to outliers?
a) Median
b) Mode
c) Mean
d) Interquartile range
Answer: c
If the standard deviation of a dataset is 0, it means:
a) The data is widely spread
b) The data has high variability
c) All values in the dataset are identical
d) The mean is zero
Answer: c
Variance is defined as:
a) The square root of the range
b) The average of squared deviations from the mean
c) The difference between the maximum and minimum values
d) The sum of absolute deviations from the median
Answer: b
Coefficient of variation is expressed as:
a) A percentage
b) A ratio
c) A whole number
d) A frequency
Answer: a
The coefficient of variation is calculated as:
a) (Variance / Mean) × 100
b) (Standard Deviation / Mean) × 100
c) (Mean / Variance) × 100
d) (Median / Mode) × 100
Answer: b
Mean deviation is calculated from:
a) Mean, median, or mode
b) Only the mean
c) Only the median
d) Only the mode
Answer: a
A dataset with a low standard deviation indicates:
a) High variability
b) Low variability
c) Symmetry
d) Skewness
Answer: b
What is the difference between population variance and sample variance?
a) Sample variance uses (n-1) in the denominator
b) Population variance uses (n-1) in the denominator
c) Sample variance is always larger than population variance
d) Population variance excludes outliers
Answer: a
A negatively skewed distribution has:
a) Mean > Median > Mode
b) Mode > Median > Mean
c) Median > Mean > Mode
d) All measures equal
Answer: b
Which measure of central tendency is most appropriate for skewed data?
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Range
Answer: b
Quartile deviation is also known as:
a) Mean deviation
b) Semi-interquartile range
c) Coefficient of variation
d) Standard deviation
Answer: b
The sum of deviations from the mean for any dataset is always:
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Equal to the range
Answer: a
For a dataset, if the mean is 50 and the median is 40, the distribution is:
a) Symmetrical
b) Positively skewed
c) Negatively skewed
d) Uniform
Answer: b
The purpose of dispersion measures is to:
a) Identify central points of data
b) Understand the variability in the dataset
c) Calculate frequencies
d) Eliminate outliers
Answer: b
If all data values are the same, the standard deviation is:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Undefined
Answer: c
Which of the following measures both central tendency and dispersion?
a) Coefficient of variation
b) Variance
c) Standard deviation
d) None of these
Answer: a

Unit 05 : Theory of Probability

The probability of an impossible event is:
a) 1
b) 0
c) 0.5
d) Undefined
Answer: b
The probability of a certain event is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) Infinite
Answer: b
If P(A) = 0.7, what is the probability of the complement of A?
a) 0.3
b) 0.7
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: a
Which of the following is the formula for probability?
a) (Number of favorable outcomes) / (Total number of outcomes)
b) (Total number of outcomes) / (Number of favorable outcomes)
c) (Favorable outcomes + Total outcomes) / Total outcomes
d) Total outcomes × Favorable outcomes
Answer: a
An experiment where the outcome cannot be predicted is called:
a) Random experiment
b) Deterministic experiment
c) Uniform experiment
d) Biased experiment
Answer: a
The set of all possible outcomes of an experiment is called:
a) Event
b) Sample space
c) Complementary set
d) Probability distribution
Answer: b
Two events are mutually exclusive if:
a) Both events occur simultaneously
b) The occurrence of one event prevents the other
c) The probability of both events is zero
d) They have overlapping outcomes
Answer: b
If two events A and B are independent, P(A ∩ B) is:
a) P(A) × P(B)
b) P(A) + P(B)
c) P(A) / P(B)
d) P(A) – P(B)
Answer: a
The addition rule of probability for mutually exclusive events is:
a) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)
b) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) × P(B)
c) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) – P(B)
d) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) / P(B)
Answer: a
The probability of event A or B occurring is given by:
a) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
b) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) × P(B)
c) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) – P(B)
d) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)
Answer: a
If P(A) = 0.4 and P(B) = 0.6 and events A and B are independent, P(A ∩ B) is:
a) 1.0
b) 0.24
c) 0.2
d) 0.6
Answer: b
A fair die is rolled. What is the probability of rolling a number greater than 4?
a) 1/3
b) 1/2
c) 2/3
d) 1/6
Answer: a
A bag contains 5 red balls and 3 blue balls. What is the probability of picking a red ball?
a) 5/8
b) 3/8
c) 1/8
d) 2/8
Answer: a
The probability of the union of two mutually exclusive events A and B is:
a) 1
b) P(A) + P(B)
c) P(A) × P(B)
d) P(A ∩ B)
Answer: b
If P(A ∩ B) = 0, the events A and B are:
a) Independent
b) Mutually exclusive
c) Complementary
d) Dependent
Answer: b
For a fair coin, the probability of getting heads in one toss is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.25
Answer: c
A probability value is always between:
a) -1 and 1
b) 0 and 1
c) -∞ and ∞
d) 1 and 2
Answer: b
If events A and B are independent, the probability of A given B is:
a) P(A) × P(B)
b) P(A | B) = P(A)
c) P(A) + P(B)
d) P(A) – P(B)
Answer: b
Bayes’ theorem is used to calculate:
a) Conditional probabilities
b) Independent probabilities
c) Joint probabilities
d) Mutually exclusive probabilities
Answer: a
If P(A | B) = P(A), then events A and B are:
a) Mutually exclusive
b) Independent
c) Complementary
d) Dependent
Answer: b
The sum of probabilities of all possible outcomes of an experiment is:
a) 1
b) 0
c) Equal to the mean
d) Equal to the variance
Answer: a
A fair coin is tossed three times. What is the probability of getting exactly two heads?
a) 1/8
b) 3/8
c) 3/4
d) 1/2
Answer: b
In probability, an event that includes all possible outcomes is called:
a) Independent event
b) Universal event
c) Sample space
d) Sure event
Answer: d
The intersection of two events A and B is represented as:
a) P(A ∪ B)
b) P(A ∩ B)
c) P(A | B)
d) P(B | A)
Answer: b
A deck of 52 cards is shuffled. What is the probability of drawing a heart?
a) 1/4
b) 1/13
c) 1/52
d) 1/2
Answer: a
If P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B), then the events A and B are:
a) Independent
b) Mutually exclusive
c) Complementary
d) Dependent
Answer: b
The probability of the complement of event A is given by:
a) P(A) + P(A’)
b) 1 – P(A)
c) P(A’) – P(A)
d) P(A) / P(A’)
Answer: b
The joint probability of A and B is:
a) P(A) × P(B | A)
b) P(A) + P(B | A)
c) P(A | B) × P(B | A)
d) P(A) / P(B)
Answer: a
In a probability distribution, the expected value is:
a) The median of the distribution
b) The weighted average of all possible values
c) The mode of the dataset
d) The standard deviation of the data
Answer: b
The law of total probability states:
a) P(A) = P(A | B) + P(A | B’)
b) P(A) = P(A ∩ B) + P(A ∩ B’)
c) P(A) = P(B) × P(A | B)
d) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
Answer: b

Unit 06 : Theoretical Probability Distribution

A probability distribution that is symmetric and bell-shaped is called:
a) Uniform distribution
b) Normal distribution
c) Poisson distribution
d) Binomial distribution
Answer: b
The mean and variance of a binomial distribution are given by:
a) np and npq
b) np and n^2p^2
c) p and q
d) n and p
Answer: a
For a Poisson distribution, the mean is equal to:
a) Variance
b) Standard deviation
c) Median
d) Zero
Answer: a
Which of the following is NOT a property of a normal distribution?
a) It is symmetric about the mean
b) The total area under the curve is 1
c) It is positively skewed
d) Mean = Median = Mode
Answer: c
The standard normal distribution has a mean of:
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) n
Answer: a
The standard deviation of a standard normal distribution is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Depends on the sample size
Answer: b
In a binomial distribution, the number of trials is denoted by:
a) p
b) q
c) n
d) x
Answer: c
The probability of exactly one success in a Poisson distribution is given by:
a) λe^(-λ)
b) λ^2e^(-λ)
c) e^(-λ)
d) (λ/2)e^(-λ)
Answer: a
If a binomial distribution has n = 5 and p = 0.6, then q is:
a) 0.4
b) 0.6
c) 0.5
d) 1.0
Answer: a
Which of the following distributions is used to model the number of arrivals at a service center?
a) Binomial distribution
b) Normal distribution
c) Poisson distribution
d) Exponential distribution
Answer: c
The shape of a normal distribution curve is determined by:
a) Mean and standard deviation
b) Variance and sample size
c) Mean and sample size
d) Variance and median
Answer: a
A random variable is said to follow a binomial distribution if:
a) Each trial has more than two outcomes
b) Each trial is dependent on the previous one
c) There are exactly two outcomes per trial
d) The probability of success changes for each trial
Answer: c
For a Poisson distribution, the probability of zero occurrences is:
a) e^(-λ)
b) λe^(-λ)
c) λ^2e^(-λ)
d) (λ/2)e^(-λ)
Answer: a
In a binomial distribution, the expected value is given by:
a) np
b) n(1 – p)
c) n + p
d) n/p
Answer: a
If a random variable follows a standard normal distribution, its variance is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) n
d) Infinite
Answer: b
A Poisson distribution is used when:
a) The number of trials is large, and probability of success is small
b) The number of trials is fixed
c) The probability of success is constant for all trials
d) The data is symmetrical
Answer: a
Which of the following is true about the normal distribution?
a) It has a single peak
b) It is skewed
c) It has equal probabilities for all outcomes
d) The total area under the curve is less than 1
Answer: a
The moment-generating function of a Poisson distribution is:
a) e^(λ(e^t – 1))
b) (1 – p + pe^t)^n
c) e^(λt)
d) 1 + λt
Answer: a
In a binomial distribution, the variance is:
a) npq
b) n^2p^2
c) n + p
d) n/p
Answer: a
The cumulative area under a normal distribution curve represents:
a) Variance
b) Probability
c) Median
d) Skewness
Answer: b
For a Poisson distribution with λ = 2, the probability of exactly 3 occurrences is:
a) (2^3 e^(-2))/3!
b) (3^2 e^(-2))/2!
c) 2^3 e^(-2)
d) 3^2 e^(-2)
Answer: a
A binomial distribution becomes approximately normal when:
a) n is large and p is close to 0 or 1
b) n is small
c) n is large and p is close to 0.5
d) n is large and p is very small
Answer: c
In a normal distribution, the area to the left of the mean is:
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.25
d) Depends on the standard deviation
Answer: a
If the mean of a Poisson distribution is 3, the variance is:
a) 1
b) 3
c) 9
d) 6
Answer: b
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a binomial distribution?
a) Fixed number of trials
b) Constant probability of success
c) Mutually exclusive outcomes
d) Infinite number of trials
Answer: d
In a normal distribution, the probability of values lying within one standard deviation from the mean is approximately:
a) 68%
b) 95%
c) 99.7%
d) 50%
Answer: a
Which distribution is often called the “bell curve”?
a) Binomial distribution
b) Normal distribution
c) Poisson distribution
d) Exponential distribution
Answer: b
The mean of a standard normal distribution is:
a) 1
b) 0
c) Infinite
d) Undefined
Answer: b
A Poisson distribution is appropriate for:
a) Continuous data
b) Discrete data
c) Data with a fixed number of trials
d) Symmetric data
Answer: b
The z-score of a data point measures:
a) The probability of the data point
b) The standard deviation of the data point
c) The distance of the data point from the mean in standard deviations
d) The variance of the data point
Answer: c

Unit 07 : Sampling and Sampling Distributions

The process of selecting a subset from a larger population is called:
a) Sampling
b) Estimation
c) Randomization
d) Distribution
Answer: a
A sample that gives every member of the population an equal chance of being selected is called:
a) Systematic sample
b) Random sample
c) Stratified sample
d) Cluster sample
Answer: b
The term used for a complete list of all items in a population is:
a) Population frame
b) Sample size
c) Sampling frame
d) Distribution
Answer: c
Which of the following is NOT a probability sampling method?
a) Simple random sampling
b) Stratified sampling
c) Convenience sampling
d) Cluster sampling
Answer: c
The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is known as:
a) Sampling error
b) Standard deviation
c) Standard error
d) Population deviation
Answer: c
A population is divided into groups, and random samples are taken from each group. This is called:
a) Simple random sampling
b) Systematic sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Stratified sampling
Answer: d
A sampling method in which every kth item is selected is called:
a) Stratified sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Systematic sampling
d) Convenience sampling
Answer: c
A sample drawn by dividing the population into clusters and selecting all items within randomly chosen clusters is:
a) Stratified sampling
b) Simple random sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Judgment sampling
Answer: c
The law of large numbers states that:
a) A larger sample size reduces bias
b) Larger samples are always representative
c) Larger sample sizes produce more accurate results
d) Larger sample sizes make sample means converge to population mean
Answer: d
The Central Limit Theorem states that as sample size increases:
a) The sample mean becomes less variable
b) The sample mean approaches a normal distribution
c) The sample standard deviation decreases
d) The population mean changes
Answer: b
The difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter is called:
a) Sampling error
b) Standard error
c) Bias
d) Variance
Answer: a
Which of the following is true about non-probability sampling?
a) It ensures equal representation of population elements
b) It involves random selection
c) It is subject to selection bias
d) It eliminates sampling error
Answer: c
A smaller group selected from the population for study is called:
a) Frame
b) Population
c) Sample
d) Statistic
Answer: c
The sampling distribution of the mean is normally distributed if:
a) The population is normally distributed
b) The sample size is large
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Which sampling method is best when the population is heterogeneous?
a) Cluster sampling
b) Simple random sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Convenience sampling
Answer: c
The average of the sampling distribution of the sample mean is equal to:
a) Population mean
b) Sample mean
c) Standard error
d) Variance
Answer: a
In cluster sampling, clusters are selected based on:
a) Homogeneity
b) Geographical proximity
c) Random selection
d) Convenience
Answer: c
Which of the following is a disadvantage of convenience sampling?
a) It is cost-effective
b) It is easy to implement
c) It is prone to bias
d) It requires a sampling frame
Answer: c
The variability of a statistic is measured by its:
a) Mean
b) Variance
c) Standard error
d) Sampling error
Answer: c
Which type of sampling uses experts’ judgment to select the sample?
a) Judgment sampling
b) Simple random sampling
c) Systematic sampling
d) Cluster sampling
Answer: a
A statistic used to estimate a population parameter is called:
a) Sampling error
b) Sample statistic
c) Estimator
d) Standard error
Answer: c
Increasing the sample size tends to:
a) Increase bias
b) Reduce sampling error
c) Increase variability
d) Reduce standard deviation
Answer: b
A biased sample occurs when:
a) The sample size is too large
b) The sample does not represent the population
c) The sampling frame is complete
d) The sampling is random
Answer: b
A sampling distribution is:
a) The distribution of sample data
b) The distribution of a sample statistic
c) The population distribution
d) The variance of a population
Answer: b
The total number of observations in a sample is called:
a) Population size
b) Sample size
c) Sampling frame
d) Statistic
Answer: b
The Central Limit Theorem applies to:
a) Skewed population distributions
b) Small sample sizes
c) Large sample sizes
d) Normal populations only
Answer: c
In stratified sampling, strata are formed based on:
a) Random assignment
b) Homogeneity within groups
c) Geographic proximity
d) Convenience
Answer: b
A sampling method that is quick and easy but lacks randomness is:
a) Simple random sampling
b) Systematic sampling
c) Convenience sampling
d) Stratified sampling
Answer: c
Which of the following is a property of sampling distribution?
a) Its mean equals the population mean
b) It is always normally distributed
c) It is the same as the population distribution
d) Its variability increases with sample size
Answer: a
The probability of selecting a specific item in simple random sampling is:
a) 1/N
b) n/N
c) N/n
d) n^2/N^2
Answer: b

Unit 08 : Estimation

Estimation is a process of inferring the value of a:
a) Sample statistic
b) Population parameter
c) Sampling error
d) Probability distribution
Answer: b
The value obtained from a sample to estimate a population parameter is called:
a) Confidence level
b) Estimator
c) Point estimate
d) Interval estimate
Answer: c
An interval within which a population parameter is expected to lie is called:
a) Confidence interval
b) Sampling error
c) Point estimate
d) Variance
Answer: a
A good estimator should be:
a) Unbiased
b) Consistent
c) Efficient
d) All of the above
Answer: d
The probability that a confidence interval contains the population parameter is called:
a) Sampling error
b) Confidence level
c) Point estimate
d) Standard error
Answer: b
The width of a confidence interval decreases as:
a) Sample size increases
b) Confidence level increases
c) Variability increases
d) Standard error increases
Answer: a
For a normal distribution, a 95% confidence level corresponds to a z-value of:
a) 1.96
b) 2.58
c) 1.645
d) 3.00
Answer: a
If the sample size is small and the population standard deviation is unknown, which distribution is used?
a) Normal distribution
b) t-distribution
c) Binomial distribution
d) Poisson distribution
Answer: b
The standard error is calculated as:
a) Sample standard deviation divided by the square root of sample size
b) Population standard deviation divided by sample size
c) Variance multiplied by the sample size
d) Sample mean divided by population mean
Answer: a
The midpoint of a confidence interval is called:
a) Variance
b) Margin of error
c) Point estimate
d) Standard error
Answer: c
A larger sample size results in:
a) Wider confidence intervals
b) Narrower confidence intervals
c) Higher variability
d) Lower efficiency
Answer: b
If a confidence interval becomes wider, it indicates:
a) Increased confidence level
b) Increased precision
c) Decreased margin of error
d) Increased bias
Answer: a
The margin of error is affected by:
a) Sample size
b) Confidence level
c) Population variability
d) All of the above
Answer: d
A 99% confidence level will have a z-value approximately equal to:
a) 1.96
b) 2.58
c) 1.645
d) 3.00
Answer: b
A parameter that is used to estimate a population parameter is called:
a) Confidence interval
b) Statistic
c) Hypothesis
d) Sample size
Answer: b
Which of the following is NOT a property of a good estimator?
a) Bias
b) Consistency
c) Efficiency
d) Sufficiency
Answer: a
The t-distribution approaches the normal distribution as:
a) Confidence level increases
b) Sample size increases
c) Variability decreases
d) Margin of error increases
Answer: b
The difference between a sample statistic and the population parameter is called:
a) Sampling error
b) Standard deviation
c) Confidence interval
d) Bias
Answer: a
Which method is used to calculate confidence intervals for proportions?
a) Normal approximation
b) Binomial theorem
c) Poisson distribution
d) t-distribution
Answer: a
An estimator is said to be unbiased if:
a) Its expected value equals the population parameter
b) It minimizes variability
c) It maximizes the confidence level
d) It has a high margin of error
Answer: a
Which of the following is an example of point estimation?
a) Sample mean
b) Confidence interval
c) Range
d) Variance
Answer: a
A 90% confidence interval is narrower than a 95% confidence interval because:
a) It uses fewer data points
b) It has a lower confidence level
c) It has a larger margin of error
d) It is based on the t-distribution
Answer: b
The variability of a confidence interval is influenced by:
a) Sample size
b) Population standard deviation
c) Confidence level
d) All of the above
Answer: d
If the population standard deviation is known, which distribution is used for estimating means?
a) Normal distribution
b) t-distribution
c) Binomial distribution
d) Poisson distribution
Answer: a
A confidence interval provides information about:
a) Sampling error
b) The range in which a parameter is likely to lie
c) Variance
d) Probability of an event
Answer: b
The degree of freedom in a t-distribution is equal to:
a) Sample size
b) Sample size minus one
c) Population size
d) Population size minus one
Answer: b
Which of the following is true about a 95% confidence interval?
a) It guarantees the true parameter is within the interval
b) It means there is a 95% chance the parameter lies within the interval
c) It means 95% of sample means will lie within the interval
d) It provides a range of plausible values for the parameter
Answer: d
If the sample size increases, the margin of error:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Doubles
Answer: b
The shape of the t-distribution is:
a) Symmetric and narrower than the normal distribution
b) Symmetric and wider than the normal distribution
c) Asymmetric
d) Skewed to the left
Answer: b
An interval estimate provides:
a) A single value
b) A range of values
c) The exact value of the population parameter
d) No information about variability
Answer: b

Unit 09 : Testing of Hypothesis in case of Large and Small Samples

Hypothesis testing is a process of:
a) Estimating population parameters
b) Making decisions about population parameters
c) Calculating the mean
d) Sampling data randomly
Answer: b
The null hypothesis (H₀) states that:
a) The sample mean equals the population mean
b) There is no significant difference or effect
c) There is a significant difference or effect
d) The alternative hypothesis is true
Answer: b
The alternative hypothesis (H₁) states:
a) There is no difference or effect
b) The null hypothesis is true
c) There is a significant difference or effect
d) Population mean equals sample mean
Answer: c
A Type I error occurs when:
a) The null hypothesis is true and rejected
b) The null hypothesis is false and accepted
c) The sample size is too small
d) The sample mean equals the population mean
Answer: a
A Type II error occurs when:
a) The null hypothesis is true and accepted
b) The null hypothesis is false and not rejected
c) The sample size is too large
d) The null hypothesis is always rejected
Answer: b
The level of significance (α) is:
a) The probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis
b) The probability of accepting a false null hypothesis
c) Always equal to 1
d) The margin of error
Answer: a
A hypothesis test conducted at a 5% significance level has a confidence level of:
a) 90%
b) 95%
c) 99%
d) 85%
Answer: b
The test statistic used for large sample tests is:
a) t-statistic
b) z-statistic
c) F-statistic
d) Chi-square statistic
Answer: b
When the sample size is less than 30 and the population standard deviation is unknown, which test is used?
a) z-test
b) t-test
c) Chi-square test
d) F-test
Answer: b
For a two-tailed test, the critical region lies:
a) Only on the left side of the distribution
b) Only on the right side of the distribution
c) On both sides of the distribution
d) In the center of the distribution
Answer: c
A one-tailed test is used when:
a) The alternative hypothesis specifies the direction of the effect
b) The null hypothesis is always true
c) Both tails are used for testing
d) There is no direction specified
Answer: a
The p-value represents:
a) The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis
b) The probability of observing the test statistic under H₀
c) The sample size divided by the mean
d) The standard error of the mean
Answer: b
If the p-value is less than α, we:
a) Accept the null hypothesis
b) Reject the null hypothesis
c) Accept the alternative hypothesis
d) Increase the sample size
Answer: b
The critical value is:
a) The probability of Type I error
b) A threshold for deciding whether to reject H₀
c) The sample mean divided by the standard error
d) The confidence level of the test
Answer: b
In hypothesis testing, the decision rule is based on:
a) Sample size
b) Confidence interval
c) Comparison of p-value and α
d) Population mean
Answer: c
A two-sample t-test is used to compare:
a) Two proportions
b) Two sample means
c) Population variance
d) Sample variance
Answer: b
The degrees of freedom for a one-sample t-test are:
a) n
b) n – 1
c) n + 1
d) 2n
Answer: b
The z-test is applicable when:
a) The population standard deviation is known
b) The sample size is less than 30
c) The population standard deviation is unknown
d) The sample is non-random
Answer: a
In large sample tests, the Central Limit Theorem ensures:
a) The sample mean approaches the population mean
b) The sampling distribution is approximately normal
c) The population mean is known
d) The sample variance increases
Answer: b
Which test is used to compare the variance of two samples?
a) t-test
b) z-test
c) F-test
d) Chi-square test
Answer: c
The t-distribution is used for small samples because:
a) It is narrower than the normal distribution
b) It accounts for additional uncertainty in estimating the population standard deviation
c) It is always symmetric
d) It has a fixed standard deviation
Answer: b
For a one-tailed test, if the test statistic falls in the critical region, we:
a) Reject the null hypothesis
b) Accept the null hypothesis
c) Increase the significance level
d) Decrease the sample size
Answer: a
The null hypothesis for a two-sample t-test assumes:
a) The two samples have the same mean
b) The two samples have different means
c) The samples are dependent
d) The variances are equal
Answer: a
In a paired t-test, the data are:
a) Independent
b) Randomly assigned
c) Matched pairs or dependent
d) Always large samples
Answer: c
The formula for calculating the test statistic in a z-test includes:
a) Population standard deviation and sample size
b) Sample variance and confidence level
c) Standard error and t-value
d) Confidence interval and margin of error
Answer: a
The larger the sample size, the:
a) Greater the standard error
b) Smaller the standard error
c) Higher the p-value
d) Larger the critical region
Answer: b
The null hypothesis for a Chi-square test of independence states that:
a) Two variables are independent
b) Two variables are dependent
c) The sample is normally distributed
d) The sample variance equals population variance
Answer: a
If the calculated test statistic is greater than the critical value, we:
a) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
b) Reject the null hypothesis
c) Accept the null hypothesis
d) Increase the significance level
Answer: b
In hypothesis testing, the test statistic measures:
a) The sample size
b) The likelihood of a Type II error
c) The distance between the sample statistic and the hypothesized parameter
d) The margin of error
Answer: c
A small p-value (e.g., p < 0.01) indicates:
a) Strong evidence against the null hypothesis
b) Weak evidence against the null hypothesis
c) The null hypothesis is true
d) The sample size is too large
Answer: a

Unit 10 : Chi–Square Test

The Chi-Square test is used to:
a) Test the independence of two variables
b) Compare means of two samples
c) Test the equality of variances
d) Test the correlation between variables
Answer: a
The Chi-Square statistic is calculated as:
a) Σ(O-E)/E
b) Σ((O-E)²/E)
c) Σ((O-E)/O)
d) Σ((O-E)²/O)
Answer: b
In the Chi-Square test, O refers to:
a) Expected frequency
b) Observed frequency
c) Original frequency
d) Optimal frequency
Answer: b
In the Chi-Square test, E refers to:
a) Experimental frequency
b) Expected frequency
c) Exact frequency
d) External frequency
Answer: b
The Chi-Square test is applied to data that is:
a) Continuous
b) Categorical
c) Ordinal
d) Interval
Answer: b
Degrees of freedom in a Chi-Square test are calculated as:
a) n-1
b) (Rows-1)(Columns-1)
c) n
d) Rows x Columns
Answer: b
The null hypothesis in a Chi-Square test of independence assumes:
a) The variables are dependent
b) The variables are independent
c) The sample means are equal
d) The variances are equal
Answer: b
The Chi-Square test is non-parametric because:
a) It does not assume normality
b) It requires interval data
c) It uses population parameters
d) It tests sample mean differences
Answer: a
The Chi-Square test is used for:
a) Large samples only
b) Small samples only
c) Both large and small samples
d) Normally distributed data
Answer: c
A Chi-Square test of goodness of fit is used to:
a) Test the equality of variances
b) Compare observed and expected frequencies
c) Test for independence
d) Analyze continuous data
Answer: b
If the Chi-Square test statistic is less than the critical value, we:
a) Reject the null hypothesis
b) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
c) Increase the sample size
d) Decrease the significance level
Answer: b
The Chi-Square distribution is:
a) Symmetrical
b) Skewed to the left
c) Skewed to the right
d) Normal
Answer: c
A significant Chi-Square test result indicates:
a) A strong correlation
b) A significant difference between observed and expected frequencies
c) The null hypothesis is true
d) The sample size is too large
Answer: b
For a goodness-of-fit test, the null hypothesis assumes:
a) The observed frequencies equal the expected frequencies
b) The observed frequencies are greater than the expected frequencies
c) The observed frequencies are less than the expected frequencies
d) The expected frequencies are constant
Answer: a
In a Chi-Square test, expected frequencies should generally be:
a) Less than 5
b) Greater than 5
c) Exactly equal to the observed frequencies
d) Equal to the number of samples
Answer: b
The formula for expected frequency in a contingency table is:
a) (Row total x Column total) / Grand total
b) (Column total x Grand total) / Row total
c) (Row total / Column total) x Grand total
d) (Row total x Grand total) / Column total
Answer: a
The Chi-Square test is not suitable when:
a) Data are categorical
b) Expected frequencies are too small
c) The sample size is large
d) Observed frequencies equal expected frequencies
Answer: b
Which of the following is an assumption of the Chi-Square test?
a) Data are normally distributed
b) Observations are independent
c) Variables are continuous
d) Population standard deviation is known
Answer: b
The Chi-Square distribution depends on:
a) Sample size
b) Degrees of freedom
c) Standard error
d) Confidence interval
Answer: b
When using the Chi-Square test, the critical value depends on:
a) Sample mean and standard deviation
b) Degrees of freedom and significance level
c) Population size and standard error
d) Confidence level and sample variance
Answer: b
A contingency table is used in a Chi-Square test to:
a) Display observed and expected frequencies
b) Compare means
c) Analyze continuous data
d) Determine correlation
Answer: a
The Chi-Square test statistic increases when:
a) Observed and expected frequencies are closer
b) Observed and expected frequencies differ more
c) Degrees of freedom decrease
d) Sample size decreases
Answer: b
Which of the following is not a type of Chi-Square test?
a) Test of independence
b) Goodness-of-fit test
c) Test for variance
d) Test for correlation
Answer: d
The critical value in a Chi-Square test is determined from:
a) The normal distribution table
b) The t-distribution table
c) The Chi-Square distribution table
d) The F-distribution table
Answer: c
A larger Chi-Square statistic indicates:
a) Greater independence between variables
b) Greater difference between observed and expected frequencies
c) Smaller sample size
d) Greater homogeneity in data
Answer: b
Which of the following increases the power of the Chi-Square test?
a) Smaller sample size
b) Larger sample size
c) Lower significance level
d) Smaller degrees of freedom
Answer: b
The Chi-Square test statistic is always:
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) Dependent on the sample size
Answer: b
A p-value less than 0.05 in a Chi-Square test means:
a) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
b) Reject the null hypothesis
c) Data are not categorical
d) Increase the sample size
Answer: b
The Chi-Square test of independence tests the relationship between:
a) Two categorical variables
b) Two continuous variables
c) One categorical and one continuous variable
d) Two independent samples
Answer: a
The Chi-Square test cannot be used when:
a) Observed frequencies are large
b) Expected frequencies are less than 5 in more than 20% of the cells
c) Data are collected randomly
d) The sample size is adequate
Answer: b

Unit 11 : F– Distribution and Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)

The F-distribution is used to:
a) Test differences in variances
b) Test differences in means
c) Estimate population parameters
d) Test for correlation
Answer: a
The shape of the F-distribution is:
a) Symmetrical
b) Skewed to the left
c) Skewed to the right
d) Bell-shaped
Answer: c
The degrees of freedom for the F-distribution are:
a) One for the numerator and one for the denominator
b) Equal for the numerator and denominator
c) Based on the sample size only
d) Dependent on the variance only
Answer: a
In the context of ANOVA, the null hypothesis typically states that:
a) All population means are equal
b) All population variances are equal
c) The samples are correlated
d) The sample means are different
Answer: a
The F-statistic is calculated as the ratio of:
a) Sum of squares between groups to sum of squares within groups
b) Mean squares between groups to mean squares within groups
c) Variance of the sample to population variance
d) Population mean to sample mean
Answer: b
In ANOVA, if the calculated F-statistic is greater than the critical value, we:
a) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
b) Reject the null hypothesis
c) Accept the null hypothesis
d) Increase the sample size
Answer: b
A large F-statistic in ANOVA indicates:
a) Small differences between group means
b) Large differences between group means
c) No differences between group means
d) Equal group variances
Answer: b
The F-distribution is:
a) Only used for large sample sizes
b) A ratio of two independent chi-square variables
c) A test for normality
d) Used to compare two population means
Answer: b
Which of the following is a requirement for using ANOVA?
a) The populations must be normally distributed
b) The variances must be equal
c) The samples must be dependent
d) Both a and b
Answer: d
The total variance in ANOVA is partitioned into:
a) Between-group variance and within-group variance
b) Between-group mean and total mean
c) Between-sample variance and within-sample variance
d) Independent and dependent variance
Answer: a
In a one-way ANOVA, the alternative hypothesis states that:
a) All group means are equal
b) At least one group mean is different
c) The variances of the groups are equal
d) The samples are dependent
Answer: b
The sum of squares between groups (SSB) represents:
a) Variation due to differences within each group
b) Variation due to differences between group means
c) Total variation in the data
d) Variation within the population
Answer: b
The sum of squares within groups (SSW) represents:
a) Variation due to differences within each group
b) Variation between group means
c) Variation in the total sample
d) Variance of the sample mean
Answer: a
The degrees of freedom for the numerator in the F-statistic calculation are based on:
a) The number of groups
b) The number of observations in each group
c) The total number of observations
d) The number of variances
Answer: a
The degrees of freedom for the denominator in the F-statistic calculation are based on:
a) The total number of groups
b) The number of groups minus one
c) The total number of observations minus the number of groups
d) The sample size
Answer: c
In ANOVA, if the p-value is less than the significance level (α), we:
a) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
b) Reject the null hypothesis
c) Accept the null hypothesis
d) Increase the sample size
Answer: b
The purpose of the post-hoc test in ANOVA is to:
a) Compare multiple means after finding a significant F-statistic
b) Test the null hypothesis
c) Determine the sample size
d) Calculate the degrees of freedom
Answer: a
In a two-way ANOVA, the main effects refer to:
a) The effects of the independent variables individually
b) The interaction between the two independent variables
c) The total effect of the dependent variable
d) The residual error
Answer: a
The F-statistic in ANOVA is used to compare:
a) Sample means
b) Population means
c) Sample variances
d) Population variances
Answer: c
The total sum of squares in ANOVA is the sum of:
a) Sum of squares between groups and sum of squares within groups
b) Sum of squares between samples and sum of squares within samples
c) Mean squares between groups and mean squares within groups
d) Variances of all groups
Answer: a
The critical value of F in ANOVA depends on:
a) The sample size and population mean
b) The significance level, degrees of freedom, and the number of groups
c) The mean squares within groups
d) The sample mean and standard deviation
Answer: b
If the variance between the groups is much greater than the variance within the groups, the F-statistic will:
a) Be close to 1
b) Be very small
c) Be large
d) Be zero
Answer: c
In a two-way ANOVA, interaction effects are tested to see if:
a) The effect of one factor depends on the level of another factor
b) The factors are independent
c) The factors are equal
d) The sample sizes are the same
Answer: a
Which assumption is necessary for conducting a valid ANOVA test?
a) The samples are randomly selected
b) The data are normally distributed within each group
c) The variances of the groups are equal
d) All of the above
Answer: d
In a one-way ANOVA, the null hypothesis assumes that:
a) The mean of each group is different
b) The variance of each group is different
c) All group means are equal
d) The samples are not independent
Answer: c
In a two-way ANOVA, if there is no interaction between the two factors, the effect of one factor can be:
a) Ignored
b) Calculated independently of the other factor
c) Tested using a Chi-Square test
d) Decreased
Answer: b
In ANOVA, if the p-value is greater than α, we:
a) Reject the null hypothesis
b) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
c) Accept the null hypothesis
d) Increase the degrees of freedom
Answer: b
A one-way ANOVA is used to compare means of:
a) One group at different time points
b) Two groups from different populations
c) Three or more groups
d) Dependent and independent samples
Answer: c
The relationship between the F-distribution and the t-distribution is that:
a) The t-distribution is a special case of the F-distribution
b) The F-distribution is derived from the t-distribution
c) The two distributions are unrelated
d) Both distributions have the same degrees of freedom
Answer: b
In a balanced ANOVA design, the sample sizes in each group are:
a) Equal
b) Unequal
c) Based on the number of variables
d) Determined by the population size
Answer: a

Unit 12 : Simple Correlation and Regression

Correlation measures the relationship between:
a) Two or more categorical variables
b) One dependent and one independent variable
c) Two continuous variables
d) Variance and standard deviation
Answer: c
The value of correlation coefficient (r) ranges from:
a) -1 to +1
b) 0 to +1
c) -∞ to +∞
d) -2 to +2
Answer: a
A correlation coefficient of 0 indicates:
a) A perfect negative relationship
b) No relationship between the variables
c) A perfect positive relationship
d) A strong relationship between the variables
Answer: b
If the correlation coefficient (r) is 1, it indicates:
a) Perfect positive linear relationship
b) Perfect negative linear relationship
c) No linear relationship
d) No relationship at all
Answer: a
In simple linear regression, the relationship between the independent variable (X) and the dependent variable (Y) is modeled as:
a) Y = a + bX
b) X = a + bY
c) Y = aX + b
d) Y = bX + a
Answer: a
In simple linear regression, ‘a’ represents:
a) The slope of the regression line
b) The y-intercept of the regression line
c) The correlation coefficient
d) The standard deviation
Answer: b
In simple linear regression, ‘b’ represents:
a) The slope of the regression line
b) The y-intercept of the regression line
c) The correlation coefficient
d) The standard error
Answer: a
The method of least squares is used in regression to:
a) Minimize the sum of squared residuals
b) Maximize the correlation coefficient
c) Minimize the sum of squared deviations
d) Maximize the regression coefficient
Answer: a
In simple linear regression, the residual is the difference between:
a) The observed value and the predicted value
b) The predicted value and the expected value
c) The dependent and independent variable
d) The slope and intercept
Answer: a
A positive value of the correlation coefficient indicates:
a) A positive relationship between the variables
b) A negative relationship between the variables
c) No relationship between the variables
d) A nonlinear relationship between the variables
Answer: a
If the correlation coefficient is -0.85, it indicates:
a) A strong positive relationship
b) A weak negative relationship
c) A strong negative relationship
d) No relationship
Answer: c
In simple linear regression, if the slope (b) is zero, it indicates:
a) A perfect positive relationship
b) No relationship between X and Y
c) A perfect negative relationship
d) A perfect linear relationship
Answer: b
The coefficient of determination (R²) represents:
a) The proportion of variance in Y explained by X
b) The correlation coefficient
c) The slope of the regression line
d) The variance in Y
Answer: a
The regression line represents the:
a) Relationship between two categorical variables
b) Average value of Y for each value of X
c) Difference between X and Y
d) Best fit curve for non-linear data
Answer: b
In regression analysis, the error term represents:
a) The observed value
b) The predicted value
c) The difference between the observed and predicted values
d) The slope of the regression line
Answer: c
Which of the following is not an assumption of simple linear regression?
a) Linearity
b) Homoscedasticity
c) Normality of residuals
d) The independent variable is normally distributed
Answer: d
The standard error of estimate measures:
a) The accuracy of the regression coefficients
b) The variation in the residuals
c) The goodness of fit
d) The variance of the independent variable
Answer: b
A regression line with a slope of -2.5 means that:
a) For each unit increase in X, Y decreases by 2.5 units
b) For each unit increase in X, Y increases by 2.5 units
c) The relationship between X and Y is positive
d) The regression model is invalid
Answer: a
In regression analysis, the p-value is used to:
a) Test the null hypothesis that the regression slope is zero
b) Estimate the regression coefficients
c) Calculate the variance
d) Determine the correlation coefficient
Answer: a
The least squares method minimizes the sum of:
a) Squared residuals
b) Squared differences between X and Y
c) The sum of Y values
d) The sum of X values
Answer: a
If the regression coefficient is 0.75, it indicates that:
a) For each unit increase in X, Y increases by 0.75 units
b) For each unit increase in X, Y decreases by 0.75 units
c) There is no relationship between X and Y
d) The slope of the regression line is zero
Answer: a
A correlation of 0 indicates:
a) A perfect negative relationship
b) No linear relationship between the variables
c) A perfect positive relationship
d) A strong positive relationship
Answer: b
Simple linear regression can be used to predict:
a) The relationship between two categorical variables
b) The relationship between two continuous variables
c) The slope of the regression line
d) The variance of the independent variable
Answer: b
In regression analysis, the residual plot is used to:
a) Check for homoscedasticity
b) Estimate the standard error
c) Calculate the correlation coefficient
d) Predict future values of Y
Answer: a
Which of the following is an important assumption in regression analysis?
a) Homoscedasticity
b) Multicollinearity
c) Autocorrelation of errors
d) Normal distribution of the dependent variable
Answer: a
The correlation coefficient (r) can be calculated using the formula:
a) Σ(Xi – X̄)(Yi – Ȳ) / Σ(Xi – X̄)²
b) Σ(Xi – X̄)² / Σ(Yi – Ȳ)²
c) Σ(Xi – Ȳ)² / Σ(Yi – X̄)²
d) Σ(Xi – Yi) / Σ(Xi + Yi)
Answer: a
The regression equation Y = 5 + 2X indicates that:
a) The slope is 5 and the intercept is 2
b) The slope is 2 and the intercept is 5
c) There is no relationship between X and Y
d) Y decreases as X increases
Answer: b
The coefficient of determination (R²) can be interpreted as:
a) The proportion of variance in X explained by Y
b) The correlation coefficient between X and Y
c) The proportion of variance in Y explained by X
d) The slope of the regression line
Answer: c
In regression analysis, if the p-value is less than 0.05, it indicates:
a) A significant relationship between X and Y
b) No relationship between X and Y
c) The slope is zero
d) A perfect linear relationship
Answer: a
Simple linear regression can be used to predict future values of Y if:
a) The independent variable is fixed
b) The relationship between X and Y is linear
c) The dependent variable is fixed
d) The residuals are non-random
Answer: b

Unit 13 : Business Forecasting

Business forecasting is primarily used to:
a) Predict future sales
b) Record past performance
c) Determine the budget
d) Manage production
Answer: a
The objective of business forecasting is to:
a) Minimize risks
b) Maximize profits
c) Predict future trends
d) Increase market share
Answer: c
Which of the following is a time-series forecasting method?
a) Regression analysis
b) Moving averages
c) Delphi method
d) Survey method
Answer: b
In business forecasting, a moving average is used to:
a) Smooth out short-term fluctuations
b) Predict future events based on past data
c) Analyze customer behavior
d) Estimate future profits
Answer: a
Exponential smoothing is a technique used in:
a) Trend forecasting
b) Seasonal forecasting
c) Time-series forecasting
d) Regression analysis
Answer: c
Which of the following is true about the least squares method in forecasting?
a) It finds the best fit line by minimizing the sum of squared differences
b) It uses only historical data for forecasting
c) It assumes no trend or seasonality
d) It is only applicable to short-term forecasting
Answer: a
The Delphi method of forecasting relies on:
a) A panel of experts
b) Historical data trends
c) Customer surveys
d) Statistical models
Answer: a
Which of the following is NOT a type of business forecasting?
a) Qualitative forecasting
b) Quantitative forecasting
c) Predictive forecasting
d) Judgmental forecasting
Answer: c
A leading indicator in business forecasting is:
a) A variable that follows the trend of the economy
b) A variable that is used to predict future trends
c) A historical data set
d) A random variable
Answer: b
Which of the following forecasting techniques is best suited for long-term forecasting?
a) Exponential smoothing
b) Time-series analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Judgmental forecasting
Answer: c
A common disadvantage of the moving average method is:
a) It cannot account for seasonality
b) It is too complex to use
c) It requires a large amount of historical data
d) It is only suitable for short-term forecasting
Answer: a
The accuracy of forecasting models can be measured by:
a) The amount of historical data used
b) The number of variables considered
c) The mean absolute error (MAE)
d) The complexity of the model
Answer: c
In a regression model, the dependent variable is:
a) The variable that is predicted
b) The variable used to predict the dependent variable
c) The time period
d) The constant value
Answer: a
Seasonal variation in business forecasting refers to:
a) Long-term trends in data
b) Predictable fluctuations that occur at regular intervals
c) Random fluctuations
d) Unpredictable changes in the economy
Answer: b
Which of the following is an example of qualitative forecasting?
a) Using historical data to predict sales
b) Surveying a panel of experts to predict future trends
c) Using time-series analysis to forecast demand
d) Applying moving averages to past sales data
Answer: b
The best forecasting model is one that:
a) Minimizes forecasting errors
b) Uses the most complex statistical methods
c) Considers a large number of variables
d) Is based only on past data
Answer: a
In time-series forecasting, the trend component refers to:
a) Random fluctuations in the data
b) Predictable fluctuations at regular intervals
c) The overall direction of the data over time
d) Seasonal variations
Answer: c
The forecast error is defined as:
a) The difference between the actual value and the forecasted value
b) The sum of squared differences between observed and predicted values
c) The total number of forecasted values
d) The standard deviation of the forecast
Answer: a
A common limitation of the Delphi method is:
a) It requires a large number of experts
b) It relies solely on historical data
c) It does not account for future uncertainty
d) It can be time-consuming and expensive
Answer: d
The primary advantage of exponential smoothing is that:
a) It is simple to use
b) It accounts for both trends and seasonality
c) It works well with short-term forecasts
d) It uses complex statistical techniques
Answer: a
Which of the following is NOT a component of time-series data?
a) Trend
b) Seasonality
c) Cyclical variation
d) Regression
Answer: d
The smoothing constant in exponential smoothing controls:
a) The number of past periods used in the forecast
b) The weight given to the most recent observation
c) The degree of seasonality in the data
d) The error margin of the forecast
Answer: b
In business forecasting, “lags” refer to:
a) Delays in the collection of data
b) The time gap between the cause and effect of a trend
c) Irregular fluctuations in data
d) Forecasting errors
Answer: b
What is the primary purpose of business forecasting?
a) To make future decisions based on historical data
b) To eliminate uncertainties in business operations
c) To create a perfect model for predicting the future
d) To reduce the need for any future data collection
Answer: a
When is it most appropriate to use the regression method in forecasting?
a) When past data is unreliable
b) When the relationship between variables is linear
c) When seasonality is a factor
d) When long-term predictions are needed
Answer: b
The moving average method is best used when:
a) There are predictable seasonal variations
b) The data shows no significant trend
c) There is a long-term growth trend
d) The data contains extreme outliers
Answer: b
The forecast made using business forecasting models is considered more reliable if:
a) The data has a linear relationship
b) The data shows no random fluctuations
c) There are no extreme variations in the past data
d) The model is complex and incorporates many variables
Answer: c
Which of the following statements is true about time-series forecasting?
a) It ignores trends and seasonality
b) It is always more accurate than qualitative methods
c) It assumes that future data will follow past patterns
d) It requires little historical data
Answer: c
The basic assumption in exponential smoothing is that:
a) Past data is irrelevant to future forecasts
b) All past observations are given equal weight
c) More recent observations are more relevant for forecasting
d) The trend will remain constant over time
Answer: c
In business forecasting, if a model has a high mean absolute error (MAE), it suggests that:
a) The model is highly accurate
b) The model is a poor predictor of future events
c) The model has no forecasting errors
d) The model accounts for all fluctuations
Answer: b

Unit 14 : Time Series Analysis

Time series analysis is used to:
a) Analyze historical data over a specific period
b) Predict future trends based on past data
c) Examine seasonal variations in data
d) All of the above
Answer: d
The main components of a time series are:
a) Trend, cycle, seasonal variation, and irregular variation
b) Average, trend, seasonal variation, and cyclical movement
c) Trend, seasonality, and outliers
d) Trend and seasonal variation
Answer: a
The trend component in a time series refers to:
a) Random fluctuations in the data
b) The general long-term movement of the data
c) The cyclic behavior in the data
d) Seasonal fluctuations
Answer: b
Which of the following is a characteristic of seasonal variation in time series data?
a) It follows a fixed and predictable pattern
b) It varies irregularly with no fixed pattern
c) It only occurs in the short term
d) It can be measured using moving averages
Answer: a
In time series analysis, “irregular variations” refer to:
a) Short-term fluctuations that follow a predictable pattern
b) Long-term trends in the data
c) Unpredictable fluctuations caused by random events
d) Seasonal variations
Answer: c
Which of the following methods is used to smooth a time series data to highlight its trend?
a) Exponential smoothing
b) Moving averages
c) Linear regression
d) Both a and b
Answer: d
In time series analysis, “cycles” refer to:
a) Short-term random variations
b) Predictable periodic movements in data
c) Long-term fluctuations that are not periodic
d) The long-term growth or decline in data
Answer: c
What is the purpose of decomposing a time series?
a) To separate its components for analysis
b) To reduce the data into a single value
c) To eliminate irregular variations
d) To predict future trends
Answer: a
The method of least squares is commonly used to:
a) Identify the cyclical component of a time series
b) Estimate the trend component of a time series
c) Analyze irregular variations
d) Detect seasonality in a time series
Answer: b
Which of the following is a method for removing seasonal variations from time series data?
a) Moving averages
b) Linear regression
c) Seasonal index
d) Exponential smoothing
Answer: c
In time series analysis, the seasonal index is used to:
a) Measure the degree of trend
b) Identify seasonal variations in the data
c) Smooth irregular fluctuations
d) Estimate cyclical movements
Answer: b
What is the primary assumption behind time series forecasting?
a) Future data will follow past patterns
b) Future data will be completely random
c) Time series data is always cyclical
d) Time series data is always linear
Answer: a
In time series analysis, a moving average is primarily used to:
a) Estimate future data values
b) Detect irregular variations
c) Smooth out fluctuations and identify trends
d) Measure the correlation between variables
Answer: c
The “multiplicative model” in time series assumes that:
a) The trend, seasonal variation, and irregular variation are added together
b) The trend and seasonal variations are independent of each other
c) The trend, seasonal variation, and irregular variation multiply together
d) The cyclical component dominates the other components
Answer: c
Which of the following is true for a time series with a strong trend component?
a) The data will fluctuate randomly
b) The data will have predictable seasonal patterns
c) The data will show consistent upward or downward movement over time
d) The data will be completely constant
Answer: c
What is the main advantage of using exponential smoothing in time series analysis?
a) It removes seasonality automatically
b) It accounts for both the trend and seasonal variations
c) It provides forecasts based solely on past data
d) It assigns equal weights to all historical data
Answer: c
The seasonal component in a time series can be calculated by:
a) Using moving averages
b) Calculating the seasonal index
c) Applying least squares regression
d) Removing irregular variations
Answer: b
In time series analysis, which component is most likely to be constant throughout the year?
a) Seasonal variation
b) Trend
c) Irregular variation
d) Cyclical variation
Answer: c
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of time series data?
a) It is collected over time
b) It can be used to identify patterns
c) It is always stationary
d) It can have multiple components (trend, seasonal, etc.)
Answer: c
The cyclical component in a time series is generally:
a) Short-term and random
b) Long-term and unpredictable
c) Long-term but regular and predictable
d) Short-term and periodic
Answer: b
Which of the following is a method used for forecasting in time series analysis?
a) Linear regression
b) Moving averages
c) Exponential smoothing
d) All of the above
Answer: d
In time series analysis, “deseasonalizing” the data means:
a) Removing the trend component
b) Eliminating the irregular variation
c) Removing the seasonal component
d) Adding the seasonal component to the data
Answer: c
Which of the following is an essential assumption in time series analysis?
a) The data is always stationary
b) The components of the time series are independent of each other
c) Future trends will mirror past data patterns
d) Seasonality does not impact the data
Answer: c
In a time series, if the trend component is increasing over time, the data is said to have a:
a) Negative trend
b) Positive trend
c) Cyclical variation
d) Seasonal variation
Answer: b
Time series analysis can be used to:
a) Estimate future demand
b) Detect economic trends
c) Understand seasonal behavior
d) All of the above
Answer: d
In time series decomposition, the “additive model” assumes that:
a) The trend, seasonal, and irregular components are multiplied together
b) The components are added to form the total series
c) Only the trend component is considered
d) The cyclical component is dominant
Answer: b
Which of the following methods is typically used to determine the seasonal index in time series analysis?
a) Moving averages
b) Regression analysis
c) Method of least squares
d) Exponential smoothing
Answer: a
A time series with no trend, no seasonality, and no cyclical variation is called:
a) Stationary
b) Non-stationary
c) Periodic
d) Irregular
Answer: a
In time series analysis, a “stationary” series is one that:
a) Has constant mean and variance over time
b) Shows a long-term increasing or decreasing trend
c) Has strong seasonal fluctuations
d) Is unaffected by random fluctuations
Answer: a
When applying time series analysis, the main goal is to:
a) Understand past trends and data behavior
b) Predict future data points based on past trends
c) Eliminate all irregular variations from the data
d) Detect the seasonal variation
Answer: b

Unit 15 : Index Number

An index number is a statistical measure that:
a) Measures the change in the quantity of goods
b) Measures the relative change in a variable over time
c) Represents the difference between two values
d) Measures the relationship between two variables
Answer: b
Which of the following is the main use of index numbers?
a) To measure central tendency
b) To measure economic changes over time
c) To predict future events
d) To analyze sample data
Answer: b
The base year in an index number is:
a) Always the most recent year
b) Chosen arbitrarily for comparison
c) The year in which the index number equals 1
d) The year of the highest production
Answer: b
The formula for calculating a price index is:
a) Price in the current year / Price in the base year
b) Price in the base year / Price in the current year
c) Price in the current year × Price in the base year
d) Price in the current year – Price in the base year
Answer: a
The Laspeyres Index is a:
a) Weighted index based on current year quantities
b) Weighted index based on base year quantities
c) Unweighted index based on base year quantities
d) Unweighted index based on current year quantities
Answer: b
Which of the following is the primary limitation of the Laspeyres Index?
a) It uses current year quantities
b) It cannot be used for price indices
c) It overestimates the cost of living
d) It underestimates inflation
Answer: c
A major difference between the Laspeyres Index and the Paasche Index is that:
a) Laspeyres uses base year quantities while Paasche uses current year quantities
b) Paasche uses base year quantities while Laspeyres uses current year quantities
c) Laspeyres is used for quantity indices, Paasche is used for price indices
d) Paasche uses geometric mean, Laspeyres uses arithmetic mean
Answer: a
The Fisher Index is known as:
a) A simple average of the Laspeyres and Paasche indices
b) A product of Laspeyres and Paasche indices
c) A weighted average index
d) A logarithmic index
Answer: a
Which of the following index numbers is considered “ideal”?
a) Laspeyres Index
b) Paasche Index
c) Fisher Index
d) Price Index
Answer: c
In the case of an unweighted index, the individual price or quantity is given the same weight. This is called:
a) Paasche Index
b) Laspeyres Index
c) Simple Index
d) Chain Index
Answer: c
The Chain Index method is used to:
a) Calculate price index numbers for a series of years
b) Combine different kinds of indices
c) Calculate the average price for a period
d) Compare the prices of different commodities
Answer: a
The Cost-of-Living Index is used to:
a) Determine inflation rates
b) Compare the cost of goods across countries
c) Measure the income distribution
d) Calculate GDP growth
Answer: a
The main purpose of using index numbers in business is to:
a) Measure the rate of return
b) Analyze the effectiveness of marketing strategies
c) Assess inflation, production, or economic growth
d) Measure customer satisfaction
Answer: c
Which index number is used to measure the variation in the total cost of a set of goods and services?
a) Price Index
b) Quantity Index
c) Value Index
d) Cost-of-Living Index
Answer: c
The formula for calculating the value index is:
a) Total value in the current year / Total value in the base year
b) Total quantity in the current year / Total quantity in the base year
c) Price in the base year / Price in the current year
d) Sum of base year prices / Sum of current year prices
Answer: a
A common method used for calculating an index number when both prices and quantities are available is the:
a) Paasche Index
b) Laspeyres Index
c) Value Index
d) Fisher Index
Answer: d
Which of the following types of index numbers is most appropriate for calculating the cost of living?
a) Price Index
b) Quantity Index
c) Cost-of-Living Index
d) Value Index
Answer: c
If the value of an index number is 110, it means that:
a) There has been a 10% decrease in the value
b) There has been a 10% increase in the value
c) There has been no change in the value
d) The value is still in the base year
Answer: b
Which of the following index numbers is typically used in national income accounting?
a) Cost-of-Living Index
b) Wholesale Price Index
c) Consumer Price Index
d) Value Index
Answer: b
In the Paasche Index, the weights are derived from:
a) The quantities of the base year
b) The quantities of the current year
c) The price changes between two periods
d) The average quantities over all periods
Answer: b
When index numbers are calculated for a group of commodities, the method used is called:
a) Group Index Method
b) Composite Index Method
c) Aggregate Method
d) Combined Index Method
Answer: c
The “weighted aggregate method” of index number calculation is used primarily for:
a) Price indices
b) Quantity indices
c) Value indices
d) Simple indices
Answer: a
A price index of 150 implies that:
a) Prices have increased by 150%
b) The cost of goods has increased by 50%
c) Prices have decreased by 50%
d) The value of goods has decreased by 50%
Answer: b
What does a Fisher Index represent in terms of the Paasche and Laspeyres indices?
a) It is the difference between the two indices
b) It is the average of the two indices
c) It is the sum of the two indices
d) It is a ratio of the two indices
Answer: b
When calculating an index number, if the base year’s quantity and price are used, the index number is called:
a) Paasche Index
b) Fisher Index
c) Laspeyres Index
d) Chain Index
Answer: c
A “value index” is primarily used to measure:
a) The total value of a set of goods over time
b) The price variation of a single commodity
c) The rate of inflation
d) The quantity variation over time
Answer: a
If the index number is less than 100, it indicates:
a) An increase in the value of the variable
b) A decrease in the value of the variable
c) No change in the variable
d) A significant fluctuation in the value
Answer: b
Which index number method uses the geometric mean for combining the Paasche and Laspeyres indices?
a) Fisher Index
b) Laspeyres Index
c) Paasche Index
d) Simple Index
Answer: a
The concept of “chain indices” is used to:
a) Combine indices of multiple years
b) Measure price indices
c) Analyze seasonal trends
d) Compare two commodities over time
Answer: a
Index numbers are widely used in:
a) Forecasting future sales
b) Analyzing economic data and inflation
c) Determining profit margins
d) Estimating the total cost of production
Answer: b

Key MCQs from Financial and Management Accounting

Must-Know MCQs from Managerial Economics

Key Multiple Choice Questions on Human Resource Management